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Basic question

Poll: What do you rebid? (61 member(s) have cast votes)

What do you rebid?

  1. 1 no trump (12 votes [19.67%])

    Percentage of vote: 19.67%

  2. 1 spade (37 votes [60.66%])

    Percentage of vote: 60.66%

  3. 2 hearts (12 votes [19.67%])

    Percentage of vote: 19.67%

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#1 User is offline   Wackojack 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 11:49

Playing 2/1 15-17NT and nmf. You open 1, partner responds 1. What do you rebid?

Scoring: IMP


Supplementary questions:

1. Swap the clubs and hearts around. Would you change your rebid?

2. Swap the 9 and A . Would you change your rebid?
May 2003: Mission accomplished
Oct 2006: Mission impossible
Soon: Mission illegal
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 11:53

I may be biased by knowing the hand.

Anyway, I bid 1 as the hand is. With any of the changes you suggest I might bid 1NT.
The world would be such a happy place, if only everyone played Acol :) --- TramTicket
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#3 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 11:56

Unlike a lot of posters who shun rebidding 1S with a balanced hand --and then use all kinds of checkbacks, but miss the 4-4 spade fit opposite a minimum response --I just bid 1S like a simple soul. Similar hand was in the recent ACBL bulletin bidding contest.
"Bidding Spades to show spades can work well." (Kenberg)
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#4 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 12:00

"A lot of posters" ? Could you show me 5 posters who said they'd rebid 1NT over 1-1?
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
      George Carlin
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#5 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 12:31

No
&
No
"Tell me of your home world, Usul"
the Freman, Chani from the move "Dune"

"I learned long ago, never to wrestle with a pig. You get dirty, and besides, the pig likes it."

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#6 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 12:55

1 always.
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#7 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 13:02

I bid 1 except in very extreme cases like Txxx Qx KJxx AQJ.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#8 User is offline   babalu1997 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 13:09

I bid 1 spades.

I often remeber Max Hardy`s advice: opener rebids to describe.

The description i want to give is, i am below 1nt range and the unbid suit is exposed.

If the clubs were stopped, 1nt and that is matchpoint gold isnt it?

View PostFree, on 2011-May-10, 03:57, said:

Babalu just wanted a shoulder to cry on, is that too much to ask for?
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#9 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 13:11

jdonn, on Nov 10 2009, 02:02 PM, said:

I bid 1 except in very extreme cases like Txxx Qx KJxx AQJ.

That is my max holding for a 1NT rebid. What is your minimum holding for a 1 call in this auction? :)
"Tell me of your home world, Usul"
the Freman, Chani from the move "Dune"

"I learned long ago, never to wrestle with a pig. You get dirty, and besides, the pig likes it."

George Bernard Shaw
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#10 User is offline   zheddh 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 13:21

Funny story. A couple of weeks back, actual hand played by me. On my table, i rebid 1S and we made 4S after

1C - 1H
1S - 4S

On the other table,

1C - 1H
1NT - all pass

1NT -1

Scoring: IMP

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#11 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 13:24

I bid 1N on the given hand and do so with the rounded suits reversed.

This is a conscious decision, willing to miss the occasional 4=4 spade partial.... which is a fate that befalls me frequently with these hand types anyway, because I play a weak notrump in first and second seat (and in one partnership, when white in 3rd seat).

Ironically, the first time I persuaded a diehard up the line bidder to try the method, we immediately missed a 2 contract to play in 1N. Opening leader led: spades! The 4-1 split defeated 2 while 1N made in comfort.

Of course, that story is not proof of anything.... the rebid of 1N will often cost when we have a 4=4 partial available....times when we gain by avoiding the fit will be less frequent.

In my view, the gains come from:

1: increased accuracy in minor suit game and slam bidding arising from the knowledge that bidding 1 promises shape

2: increased accuracy in finding the best partial, again arising from the knowledge that 1 promises shape. This edge is less valuable after a 1 opening than it is after opening 1, and I can see an argument for bidding up the line after 1 and bypassing spades, with a balanced hand, after 1, but there comes a point where consistency of approach is more important that fine-tuning agreements in partnerships that don't play that often.

3. Increased difficulty for the defence in balancing and lead decisions after a 1N rebid.
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#12 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 13:25

babalu1997, on Nov 10 2009, 02:09 PM, said:

I bid 1 spades.

I often remeber Max Hardy`s advice: opener rebids to describe.

The description i want to give is, i am below 1nt range and the unbid suit is exposed.

If the clubs were stopped, 1nt and that is matchpoint gold isnt it?

With all respect to the dead, I don't think Hardy ranks very high on most experts' lists of leading bridge theoreticians :)
'one of the great markers of the advance of human kindness is the howls you will hear from the Men of God' Johann Hari
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#13 User is offline   eyhung 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 13:25

Fine, I'll be the spokesman for the 2 camp. I choose 2 over 1NT because of the suit-oriented nature of my hand and the small doubleton worries me, and my followups can cater for a 3-trump raise. Yes, there are definitely downsides to bypassing spades, but my style is to only rebid 1 with an unbalanced hand. I certainly don't think my hand is worth bidding 1 ... 1 ... 2, I think that should show extras.

When I do have an unbalanced hand, I have an advantage in being able to describe my two suits and unbalanced nature immediately, and when I don't have that hand, I don't lose as often as one might think -- you may be able to checkback over 1NT into your 4-4 spade fit, or partner may not have 4 spades.

I'd bid 1NT with either change.
Eugene Hung
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#14 User is offline   Mbodell 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 14:44

I prefer 1nt > 2 > 1, but I understand this is a partnership style issue and any one of the bids is fine if partner expects it, IMO. For me I like 1 to basically promise a singleton or void. I'd open this hand 1nt playing a 12-14 nt and the fact that partner has 6 or more points and 4 or more hearts hasn't made me want to change the description of my hand. Partner will know that I have 12-14 and balanced with 4+ diamonds and less than 4 hearts.
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#15 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 15:03

I like to bypass to immediately limit the strength of my hand. But I also like to have a better holding in the unbid suit, preferably Jx or better. But opponents will often lead in the auction 1-1-1NT.

#16 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 15:36

Wackojack, on Nov 10 2009, 12:49 PM, said:

Playing 2/1 15-17NT and nmf. You open 1, partner responds 1.  What do you rebid? 

Dealer: West
Vul: E/W
Scoring: IMP
AJ74
K102
A854
94
 


Supplementary questions:

1. Swap the clubs and hearts around.  Would you change your rebid?

2. Swap the 9 and A . Would you change your rebid?

easy one spade, always.

1) Responder will just assume I am 11-13 bal. Which I am very often.
2) With 4=2=5=2 and 14-16 I will open 1nt often.
3) Partner will note I did not jump rebid.
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#17 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 17:41

eyhung, on Nov 10 2009, 02:25 PM, said:

I certainly don't think my hand is worth bidding 1 ... 1 ... 2, I think that should show extras.

If you bid 1S with this hand you are not planning to bid 2H next. I see no reason to think that the combination of 1N/2D/2H/2S that you will get to after bidding 1S will be worse than playing in 2H opposite all of those hands.
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#18 User is offline   eyhung 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 18:09

Jlall, on Nov 10 2009, 04:41 PM, said:

eyhung, on Nov 10 2009, 02:25 PM, said:

I certainly don't think my hand is worth bidding 1 ... 1 ... 2, I think that should show extras.

If you bid 1S with this hand you are not planning to bid 2H next. I see no reason to think that the combination of 1N/2D/2H/2S that you will get to after bidding 1S will be worse than playing in 2H opposite all of those hands.

Right, I would not be planning to bid 2 next, but just like bidding 2 directly will cause us to miss good spade partials, bidding 1 may cause us to miss good heart partials where partner has a weak hand with 5 mediocre hearts (more likely given your KTx). Even if partner only has 4 hearts in a bad hand, the worthless club doubleton and two heart honors also gives hope that even the 4-3 heart fit may play better than 1NT or 1.

However, I am not saying that 2 is +EV vs. 1 on this particular hand. I think it's actually -EV, and if I were only dealt 4342s for my 1 openers, I'd want to be playing a system where I could rebid 1 on any 4342 hand. But I think in the context of my preferred rebidding style, I believe the +EV I gain from 1 promising an unbalanced hand when those hand-types occur outweighs the -EV action I have to take by raising to 2 on this hand, because I think -EV is small given the reasons I advanced. Note that everything had to be right for me to raise to 2 on 4342 -- either one of the changes mentioned by the OP causes me to rebid 1NT instead.
Eugene Hung
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#19 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 19:17

Yep exactly right, bidding 2H should be because your only options systemically are 2H or 1N. If you cannot systemically bid 1S it should be because you accept the losses but feel you gain more by bidding 1N with this hand and having a more well defined 1S bid.

I disagree with the conclusion but agree with the thought process :ph34r:
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#20 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2009-November-10, 21:24

2H always. Bidding 1S would show an unbalanced hand with 5+D and 4S.
"The King of Hearts a broadsword bears, the Queen of Hearts a rose." W. H. Auden.
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