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Hand evaluation

Poll: What is this hand worth? (38 member(s) have cast votes)

What is this hand worth?

  1. Just sign off in game (14 votes [36.84%])

    Percentage of vote: 36.84%

  2. A mild slam try (transfer to 3S and then bid 4S) (21 votes [55.26%])

    Percentage of vote: 55.26%

  3. A strong slam try (transfer and cue) (2 votes [5.26%])

    Percentage of vote: 5.26%

  4. Something else (1 votes [2.63%])

    Percentage of vote: 2.63%

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#21 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 12:00

Playing standard methods I would just Texas transfer.

With Arend I do not play Texas transfers, I would have to start with 3HH no matter whether I have slam interest or not. If partner now bids 3S (the generic response) then I will sign off in 4S. However, we "superaccept" with 3-card support much more often than others by bidding 3NT. Over this I would bid 4D, partner already has shown exactly 3-card support and a good hand, I think we can make one positive sound to try for slam.
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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#22 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 13:00

I would make a mild slam try. I thought this before I saw the perfecto minimum opposite, and I still think this.

There may be a philosophical difference on what 2N - 3 - 3 - 4 means. To me, "mild slam try" means exactly that. I like my hand for slam if you love yours. It doesn't mean, "I like my hand for slam, but signoff only if you hate yours". That would be a strong slam try.
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#23 User is offline   kenrexford 

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Posted 2009-June-11, 13:40

I don't understand the idea that a transfer-then-game shows a slam try only opposite a non-super accept. What is the purpose of a super-accept, then?

I also restate that I think this to be a super-accept, IF the systemic super-accept with this hand is 3NT. To me, this super-accept shows three-card support with two of the top three honors and 51/2 to 6 covers. Or, a hand where game makes roughly 50% of the time when partner has Hxxxx in the major and out.

If partner has only that, we make when spades split 3-2 and the hook works, or when we get a lead into the A-Q, or when something else good happens.

The cost to this style is that you cannot sign off at 3 IF partner has this very hand. That's so rare anyway, and the extra level of so little real cost, that it seems worth the call.
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#24 User is offline   Tcyk 

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Posted 2009-June-18, 18:22

It turns out that there is a very logical sequence for this particular hand. We bid 3 transferring to spades and then bid 4. This sequence can not be showing both majors. With both majors and a game forcing hand, responder would bid Stayman (whatever variety you prefer). 4 and 4 would be some kind of a slam try with values in the suit bid. 4 must be a slam try with short s.
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#25 User is offline   Tcyk 

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Posted 2009-June-18, 18:57

dicklont, on Jun 11 2009, 12:16 PM, said:

I can postpone my decision for one round, because I recently learned a specific treatment for the major suit transfer over 2NT.

Transfer 3
- partner accepts: he has two spades
- partner bids 3NT: he has two spades and five hearts
- partner bids something else: shows 3+ spades and values in that suit, but must leave room to repeat the transfer
Yes, we're no longer able to sign off in 3/.

So when partner answers 4 I'll cue K, else we'll play 4.

Your method is interesting and is almost the same as the method published by John Montgomery in his book "Revision Club." I don't know where John got his method, perhaps he will tell us.

The difference is that accepting the transfer shows 2 to 5 s, denies 5s, and is not a superaccept; less than 4 s or a minimum hand. 3NT is as you stated, specifically 2=5=3=3 shape. 4 and 4 are superaccepts with 4 or 5 and control in the suit bid. 4 becomes the superaccept with control in s. 4 is not an available rebid by opener because it must be left open so responder can repeat the transfer to s.
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#26 User is offline   Tcyk 

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Posted 2009-June-18, 19:04

Tcyk, on Jun 19 2009, 12:22 AM, said:

It turns out that there is a very logical sequence for this particular hand. We bid 3 transferring to spades and then bid 4. This sequence can not be showing both majors. With both majors and a game forcing hand, responder would bid Stayman (whatever variety you prefer). 4 and 4 would be some kind of a slam try with values in the suit bid. 4 must be a slam try with short s.

Okay, I take it back. 4 and 4 must be pass or correct game tries in s and the minor suit shown; not necessarily slam tries. I still believe that 4 after the transfer must show short s.
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#27 User is offline   Jlall 

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Posted 2009-June-18, 20:43

Texas.
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#28 User is offline   hanp 

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Posted 2009-June-19, 00:42

I have an apple. It cannot be black but it could be green. Therefore it must be green. Sounds good to me!
and the result can be plotted on a graph.
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