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Who to blame (4) for a missing slam

#1 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2005-May-12, 23:55

Scoring: IMP

play 2/1, South opened 1S and West overcall 3:
S W N E
1S 3 3 P
4 all passed


Who is (more) responsible for missing the 6?
-----
One more hand.

Scoring: IMP

play 2/1, South opened 1S and West overcall 3:
S W N E
1S 3 3 P
4 all passed

who is bid beyond game?
Senshu
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#2 User is offline   shoeless 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 00:14

West for bidding 3H? Guess since south is going to bid game anyway a cue of 4H is cheap and shows some inclination for slam. Can't see how north can be found at fault on this auction.
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#3 User is online   awm 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 00:18

No one.. because this is not a slam you want to be in. You need clubs 3-2, not AQ diams offside, and not spades 4-0. Less than 50%.

With that said, I think south should probably make a try. North bid his hand with 3 (which shows a good single raise to a bad limit raise).
Adam W. Meyerson
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#4 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 01:01

Hand 1)

The brilliant layout of the cards?

If you really want looking for slam
with this kind of hand pair, open the
South hand with 2C.

Although the hand would not qualify
as a 2C opener for me.

But even then you will reach 6S only
with a lot of overbidding.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#5 User is offline   bearmum 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 01:53

BOTH hands rely on the lay of the cards to get to slam IMHO


Hand 1 I think BOTH bid well ---- neither had good D to Q so be happy not in slam :)

Hand 2 MAYBE N is worth ONE more try at slam with a 4 Q bid but even then SLAM really depends on ALL the cards being right and I as S would REFUSE the invitation by bidding 5 :)
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#6 User is offline   flytoox 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 02:17

I think both are normal. I dont think you should bid slam with these hands. Be happy with a game. Dont forget bridge is a game:)
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#7 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 02:20

Hand 1. South might have tried 4C instead of 4S. If North bids 4H, then better sign-off in 4S (possible heart wastage). If north cues 4D, South can try 4NT and shoot at 6. But then again, this isn't that hot a slam.

Hand 2. If one is not playing serious/frivolous 3NT here, it's not easy to make a move. Forgetting that issue, if South bids 1H-2D-3H it would certainly be easier (I'm not saying South should do it, though).
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#8 User is offline   Walddk 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 02:29

1. Society. You really don't want to be in slam.

2. This is a bit better, especially if opps promise not to lead a black suit. South gets all the blame, if their is any to distribute, because he didn't bid 3NT (serious). North has no errand (4) when South is not serious about slam (cue bid instead of 3NT).

Roland
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#9 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 02:38

1. Nobody, you don't want such hands to play 6-1 because you don't have a 2nd round control: lead goes through the K, if they lead small, it can be from Qxxx or from Axxx (or worst xxx), so you'll have to choose and you'll choose wrong because luck isn't on your side in this game ;)

2. Still not a good slam imo. You'll probably either make or go -2. However, it depends on how you play such auctions. If you play serious 3NT, then south is to blame. If you don't play it, then North is imo to blame, since he has a 4 last train cuebid (shows stopper, asks one in )...
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#10 User is offline   Blofeld 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 07:17

Isn't 6NT played by North on the first hand a good contract? ;)
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#11 User is offline   Walddk 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 07:24

Blofeld, on May 13 2005, 08:17 AM, said:

Isn't 6NT played by North on the first hand a good contract? ;)

It is. 68% (clubs 3-2), but it would be a bit double dummy to get to NT.

Roland
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#12 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 07:42

Not sure if slam is good but I would bid 4 with south's cards.

On hand 2 I would reopen with south's hand as well and go down to 5 or 6, why didn't north bid 4 instead of 3?
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#13 User is offline   mr1303 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 07:44

In 2/1, 4H would deny a spade or club control.
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#14 User is offline   HeartA 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 08:58

Walddk, on May 13 2005, 03:29 AM, said:

1. Society. You really don't want to be in slam.

2. This is a bit better, especially if opps promise not to lead a black suit. South gets all the blame, if their is any to distribute, because he didn't bid 3NT (serious). North has no errand (4) when South is not serious about slam (cue bid instead of 3NT).

Roland

No serious 3NT or last train between partnership.
Senshu
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#15 User is offline   mike777 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 11:48

1) Slam it not good on hand one, with 3H bid... Diamonds offside and in 6NT clubs are not breaking...far less than 68% on this bidding. As I PM last nite I doubt very much missing this slam is losing bridge in the top class.

2) Alert, jumping on my high horse once again. One more reason to not bid 2/1 game force with these 12 HCP hands. Yes 1nt is a junkyard but putting more trash in it will not make it more 'junky" and makes your other auctions more constructive.

1H=1NT
3H=3S
4C=4H
?

At this point responder has shown strong slam interest across from what your 3h bid shows. Your options are:
4S=RKC
4NT= GENERAL VALUES, LAST TRAIN,
5D=CUEBID, OTHER LAST TRAIN
PASS
5H=LOOKING FOR SECOND ROUND D CONTROL, LAST TRAIN
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#16 User is offline   luke warm 

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Posted 2005-May-13, 17:18

on hand 1, i think south should look if anyone does, tho i'd probably just bid 4 or as north

on hand 2, north's 4 bid denied a diamond control (i'm not real sure 4 is last train (somebody who knows, tell me)... why isn't it a diamond control?)... south's 4 bid denied a spade control... the question is, should south be serious or not about slam? he has 6 controls and 6 losers... partner rates to have a 6 or 7 loser hand

after the 2 followed by the 3 bids, i think i'd have gotten fairly serious with those controls... i think if i *had* to blame someone it would be south for not looking
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