I was called to this table after South had corrected the announcement of 2♥ a little late, after West had faced her opening lead and dummy had been spread. Their agreement was to play weak twos. I told them to continue playing and call me back at the end of the round.
West said she would not have led anything different given a correct explanation. Neither West nor East would have bid differently. East tried to interest me in what would have happened if North had bid according to their agreements, but I didn't feel that was relevant.
I tried asking South how he understood a 2♠ response to a weak 2♥ opening bid, but he didn't seem to understand. All he could say was "Well, he can't bid 2♠, the only asking bid he's got is 2NT". I suggested that he could bid 2♠ if he wanted, just as he could bid 3♥, or 3♣, or anything else, if he didn't want to use the "asking bid", but I couldn't get through to him.
I think a lot of club players don't discuss whether a change of suit after a weak two is forcing or not, and (regrettably) the tempo of the response is used unconsciously to decide whether to continue bidding or not.
Result: 4♥(S)=.
In the end I didn't think South was likely to pass 2♠, so I didn't adjust the score. Do you think I was right?