2/1 - 2H or 1NT
#1
Posted 2014-July-21, 03:53
♠AQ8 ♥KT842 ♦J643 ♣A
(p) 1S (p) ?
I tried 2H but when I ran Jack it suggested 1NT on the basis that the Hearts weren't good enough.
I suspect that there is no right answer but as 1NT is 100% forcing there is no danger of being passed out, but it doesn't get across the strength of the hand and I would worry about trying to play catch up if a slam is on.
I was wondering what the more experienced would have done in this position?
As always, thanks in advance.
Simon
#2
Posted 2014-July-21, 04:29
#3
Posted 2014-July-21, 05:55
#4
Posted 2014-July-21, 05:59
unless I miscounted, you have 14HCP,maybe downgrade whatever you want, but
will you ever convince partner that you have 5 hearts and an opening bid,
when you start with 1NT?
Simple answer is No.
Of course if you do samples, that it may become clear, that for this specific
hand downgrading works, this is to complicate for me.
If you happen to play 2C as GF, bal. or 3 card spade support, than selling the
hand as bal. is certainly a sensible approach.
With kind regards
Marlowe
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
#6
Posted 2014-July-21, 07:39
after the 1n choice. There are very few ways to really come close to describing
this hand after using 1n vs 2h. Most of the bidding will be jumps to 4s playing
catch up and the minimum hand for that is something like 13 count 3334. This
hand has an extra source of tricks with a 5 card heart suit and the singleton
club can also be an extremely valuable asset for slam purposes.
I normally have zero problems using jacoby 2n with 3 card support and I would
bid 2h with this hand playing 2/1. In an ideal world having the AQ of spades
and the AQJ of hearts for a 2h bid sounds pleasant enough but utility is also
a factor. We will see very few hands with such a miraculous concentration of values
so it might be best overall to tailor our bidding to the much greater majority
of hands where game and possibly slam are available.
Opener would have a tendency to view the QJ doubleton of hearts with a jaundiced
eye for slam purposes unless (the hog) we start the proceedings with 2h and the
QJ suddenly have opener jumping for joy.
#7
Posted 2014-July-21, 08:25
whereagles, on 2014-July-21, 07:36, said:
Would you really bid 1NT with
A
KT9xx
Jxxx
AQx?
George Carlin
#9
Posted 2014-July-21, 14:28
#10
Posted 2014-July-21, 15:45
whereagles, on 2014-July-21, 14:15, said:
If the fit makes it a GF, it means that without a fit but the same honours it is not a GF. If it is a GF with or without a fit, why mention the fit?
George Carlin
#11
Posted 2014-July-21, 17:00
Anyway, GF in both cases of course.
#12
Posted 2014-July-21, 18:20
Consider if partner holds something like ♠ KJxxx ♥ AQx ♦ Ax ♣ xxx. You have about a laydown 6 ♠ with 14 opposite 14. So showing your suit may be important whenever a 2 suited fit is present. After 1 ♠ - 2 ♥ - 3 ♥ - 3 ♠, slam starts to come into view with room to show controls.
#13
Posted 2014-July-21, 21:48
Of course you GF right away with a 5 card ♥ suit and 14 HCP.
#14
Posted 2014-July-21, 23:25
HERE AT LEAST GIVE THE true pts OPENING HAND AND SUPPORT PARTNER MUST UNDERSTAND SITUATION.
I AM NOT FOR THE I NT * forcing here.
Because does not guaranteed absolute fit..and BIG LIE ON THE PTS HAND.MAXIMUM 11 PTS ...
Aikya
Armand
Email me
#15
Posted 2014-July-22, 00:47
#16
Posted 2014-July-22, 02:35
#19
Posted 2014-July-22, 14:00
#20
Posted 2014-July-22, 17:33