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Is this forcing in 21st century Acol

#1 User is offline   Wackojack 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 08:24

21st century Acol might be an oxymoron to some. However:

1. 1M-2LR-2NT? OK unanimously forcing. Just checking!

2. 1-1-2-2?

3. 1-2-2?

4. 1-2-2?

5. 1-1-2/?

If you have the time please explain why forcing or non forcing. Assume weak no trump.
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#2 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 08:37

1 is forcing of course, if responder doesn't want to force (or at least invite) opposite a balanced 15 he could just have responded 1NT

2 yes for the same reasons as in SA, but in Acol it is somewhat more likely that opener has only five clubs (and hence length in one of the red suits) so you would like to be able to look for a better strain with a very light invite. So I wouldn't be opposed to playing this as NF.

3 Similar to above but obviously this could be NMF (which would make the above NF). OTOH it is not so bad to have to jump to 3 to force (having to jump to 3 would be worse). So there is a case for playing this as NF but the above as forcing. Then again, let's keep things symmetric and treat 2 and 3 the same (if not playing NMF).

4 yes of course, no merits at all of playing this NF.

5 No, The 10-17 range is wide enough, let's not make it 10-21.
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#3 User is offline   whereagles 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 08:45

The rule is usually that a 2/1 is forcing up to 2NT.

1. 1M-2LR-2NT? OK unanimously forcing. Just checking!
2. 1♣-1♠-2♣-2♥?
3. 1♠-2♣-2♥?
4. 1♠-2♣-2♦?
5. 1♥-1♠-2♣/♦?

1. 2NT is 15-19 (or 15-17? dont remember acol), so yeah forcing. Game forcing.
2/3/4. Forcing.
5. Not forcing. Economic two suiter, 11-17 HCP or thereabouts. Resp passes with preference for minor and less than 9 HCP.
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#4 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 08:50

View PostWackojack, on 2014-February-25, 08:24, said:

1. 1M-2LR-2NT? OK unanimously forcing. Just checking!
2. 1-1-2-2?
3. 1-2-2?
4. 1-2-2?
5. 1-1-2/?

As always Acol is a broad church so it depends on other agreements. For 2 you could agree to use a 2 rebid gadget and for 3 and 4 you might want to make an agreement that a 2/1 is "forcing to 2NT" or "promises a rebid". Assuming no 2 gadget and F->2NT,

1. forcing (to game)
2. forcing
3. forcing (to 2NT)
4. forcing (to 2NT)
5. not forcing

but I would not be confident of a random partner seeing it the same way with the only agreement being "Modern Acol".
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#5 User is offline   Wackojack 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 09:15

View Postwhereagles, on 2014-February-25, 08:45, said:

The rule is usually that a 2/1 is forcing up to 2NT.

This is not so. 1-2-2-2 is definitely not forcing. Acol 2 over 1 responses only promise a good 9 points even in the 21st century. If it is forcing to 2N it is not Acol.
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#6 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 09:18

View PostZelandakh, on 2014-February-25, 08:50, said:


3. forcing (to 2NT)
4. forcing (to 2NT)

So you would play
1-2
2-2
as forcing? Given that the 1 opening is 15-19 balanced or 10+ unbalanced I think responder could be in a position in which he wants to invite (or even GF) opposite 15 balanced while at the same time wanting to stop ASAP opposite an unbalanced minimum.
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#7 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 09:21

View PostWackojack, on 2014-February-25, 09:15, said:

This is not so. 1-2-2-2 is definitely not forcing. Acol 2 over 1 responses only promise a good 9 points even in the 21st century. If it is forcing to 2N it is not Acol.


Right. A "rule" would be that 2/1 is forcing to 2 of the suit opened.
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#8 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 09:25

is it considered off-topic to add one more? I wonder about this one:
1-2
2NT-3
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#9 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 09:27

Yes that is precisely what F->2NT is. It means that to make a 2/1 you have to have enough to at least invite opposite a minimum opening (so typically 10+ rather than 9+). An advantage is that Opener can avoid jumping or making some temporarising call with, for example, a good hand and a bad suit. The given sequence shows either a 3 card invite or a doubleton spade. This is one of the major differences between F->2NT and "promises rebid".

The real question in this thread should be whether the sequence 1 - 2; 2 is forcing or not. In traditional Acol it is not forcing whereas in both PR and F2N it obviously is forcing. The answer to this one has the most knock-on effects to the rest of the structure imho.

Edit: an addition for the last post:

View Posthelene_t, on 2014-February-25, 09:25, said:

is it considered off-topic to add one more? I wonder about this one:
1-2; 2NT-3


View PostZelandakh, on 2014-February-25, 08:50, said:

1. forcing (to game)

(-: Zel :-)
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#10 User is offline   Vampyr 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 09:33

View Posthelene_t, on 2014-February-25, 09:25, said:

is it considered off-topic to add one more? I wonder about this one:
1-2
2NT-3


Well, we were asked about 21st Century Acol, and I think that it is very old-fashioned for this 2NT to not be forcing to game.

View PostZelandakh, on 2014-February-25, 09:27, said:

The real question in this thread should be whether the sequence 1 - 2; 2 is forcing or not.


Of course it isn't.
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#11 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 09:34

An Acol 2/1 shows you wish to be in game opposite a 15-16 NT. If you think that gives you the values for 2NT opposite a minimum opening then you must open more soundly than I do.
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#12 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 10:11

FWIW I play 1x-2y-2x as NF but 1x-2y-2z as F1 (but not to 2NT: opener is able to pass after e.g. 1S-2C; 2D-2S).

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#13 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2014-February-25, 23:31

View PostWackojack, on 2014-February-25, 09:15, said:

This is not so. 1-2-2-2 is definitely not forcing. Acol 2 over 1 responses only promise a good 9 points even in the 21st century. If it is forcing to 2N it is not Acol.


I disagree. 2/1 has been forcing to 2NT in Acol played in Australia for the last 30 years.
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#14 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2014-February-26, 02:14

View Postthe hog, on 2014-February-25, 23:31, said:

I disagree. 2/1 has been forcing to 2NT in Acol played in Australia for the last 30 years.

But not in Acol in the UK.
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#15 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2014-February-26, 02:17

View PostVampyr, on 2014-February-25, 09:21, said:

Right. A "rule" would be that 2/1 is forcing to 2 of the suit opened.

Or it could be put another way, that new suits are forcing after a 2/1. Similarly, new suits by unlimited responders are also forcing.
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#16 User is offline   WGF_Flame 

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Posted 2014-February-26, 02:58

1-4 forcing,
5 nf
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#17 User is offline   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2014-February-26, 03:16

For us:

1: FG (and unusually we play this as not necessarily balanced)
2: NF because we play a 2 relay here
3/4: F1
5 F1 unless you didn't really have a response and were just trying to improve the contract
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#18 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2014-February-26, 03:31

(boldface mine)

View PostZelandakh, on 2014-February-25, 09:27, said:

Yes that is precisely what F->2NT is. It means that to make a 2/1 you have to have enough to at least invite opposite a minimum opening (so typically 10+ rather than 9+). An advantage is that Opener can avoid jumping or making some temporarising call with, for example, a good hand and a bad suit. The given sequence shows either a 3 card invite or a doubleton spade. This is one of the major differences between F->2NT and "promises rebid".

I don't get it. Opener just bids (1-2; ) 2 with all sorts of hands and then can clarify over 2. Responder will know that opener has more than a minimum from his non-pass. I always thought that the above argument applies much better to the sequence from your second paragraph:

Quote

The real question in this thread should be whether the sequence 1 - 2; 2 is forcing or not. In traditional Acol it is not forcing whereas in both PR and F2N it obviously is forcing. The answer to this one has the most knock-on effects to the rest of the structure imho.

Precisely here must opener make up something with a good opening, be it 2NT, 3, or fake a diamond suit (?).

It is very much possible that I misunderstood something but at least I can help make Cyberyeti's case in another thread that many Acol ignorami chime in to threads where they don't belong. ;)
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#19 User is offline   Zelandakh 

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Posted 2014-February-26, 03:32

View Postgordontd, on 2014-February-26, 02:14, said:

But not in Acol in the UK.

That depends on which book you read! The first place I came across this idea was a book from the master series in the eary 80s. It effectively forces 2/1 responses to be slightly stronger and therefore distributes the hands more economically between the available calls and this benefit is as true of Acol in Engliand (where I played it on occasion) as of other systems that use this or similar mechanisms.
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#20 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2014-February-26, 03:46

You could make the 2/1 responses a bit sounder, say 10+. With most 11 counts responder is probably worth a second bid so passing the 2M rebid is a narrow target.

It certainly has advantages to play 1M-2m-2M as forcing. My guess would be that it isn't worth the costs but I could obviously be wrong. In any case, I don't see much advantages of playing
1-2
2-2
as forcing.
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