Anyway, you hold ♠A652♥A5♦KQJ75♣Q7. Scoring is imps. Partner (a good player who is occasionally given to flights of fancy) deals at game all and passes, as does RHO. This is the land of 4-card majors and the weak NT, so you open 1♦ - which will always be at least a 4-card suit, and more often than not a 5-card suit. Oppo are silent, and partner responds 4NT!
There is a reasonably widespread school of thought that a 4NT response to an opening 1-level bid should be 4-ace Blackwood rather than RKCB, since you can always bid something else first if you want RKCB but there isn't any other way simply to ask for aces if that is all you want to know. But that argument surely only applies to an unpassed hand - so have you discussed what 4NT by a passed hand means in this sequence???
Maybe you don't think this is a particularly high priority for partnership discussion since partner can't possibly have a hand worth 4N when he has passed as dealer. Nevertheless, that's what he has done! Fortunately, partner is not of the school that believes in 4-ace Blackwood, so you meekly reply 5♣ to show 0 or 3 key cards, and the next bid you see is 7♦ from partner!
I can't pretend to have any idea what is going on, but fortunately I'm not called on to make any more decisions before seeing the dummy...
Partner's hand:
Spoiler