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After the converted double? What do our bids mean?

#1 User is offline   wyman 

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Posted 2010-October-28, 07:37

Maybe this is omglolwtp but I didn't know what everything meant. If this is B/I I can repost. xx is obviously SOS.

all red:
(p)-p-(1c)-x
(p)-p-(xx)-1d
(p)-??

What does 1d show, and what are our follow-ups?
What's forcing?
What does a new suit show?
Jump in a new suit?
What are our diamond raises?
What are our NT bids?
How do these answers change if we aren't a PH?
"I think maybe so and so was caught cheating but maybe I don't have the names right". Sure, and I think maybe your mother .... Oh yeah, that was someone else maybe. -- kenberg

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#2 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2010-October-28, 09:07

I have never discussed this with any regular partner. I'm not saying it is not important ... well I am really, it's not important for most as there is so much else to discuss and we leave things like this to just be common sense.

So I guess partner has diamonds and no interest in doubling at least one of the majors at the one-level, otherwise he'd pass the redouble. I'd bid now as if partner had opened 1♦ with the comfort of knowing that he has a good hand.
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#3 User is offline   dake50 

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Posted 2010-October-28, 09:59

What does pass by partner then 2D later show? Different from 1D over XX, I guess.
Lots of questions for this rare, thus an-agreed situation.
I hope meta-agreements carry this auction. Here strong forces at least 2NT or raised.
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#4 User is offline   bucky 

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Posted 2010-October-28, 11:48

I don't think the penalty pass of 1C-X sets up any force. The advancer can have just 5-7 HCP and lots of clubs. The pass just says he thinks there is a good chance 1C would go down, nothing further.
 
 
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#5 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2010-October-28, 12:04

Haven't discussed this but meta-agreements would say that 1♦ is weaker than pass followed by 2♦, so 1♦ doesn't show extra values and is not forcing. If responder now bids 1NT or 2♣ it should be non-forcing but 1M should be forcing by a non-passed hand, I think. Just because otherwise it is not clear what responder can do to force. But probably most hands with GF values can just punt 3NT here.
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#6 User is offline   NickRW 

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Posted 2010-October-28, 13:34

View Posthelene_t, on 2010-October-28, 12:04, said:

Haven't discussed this but meta-agreements would say that 1♦ is weaker than pass followed by 2♦...


Why? I admit the sequence is undiscussed here as well - but - surely you don't think your pass is forcing on partner in the unlikely event that responder should leave the xx in do you?!

Nick
"Pass is your friend" - my brother in law - who likes to bid a lot.
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#7 User is offline   wyman 

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Posted 2010-October-29, 12:41

Follow-ups:

Jxx / xx / A10x / AQ96x

1) Leaving the double in?
2) Call over 1D?
"I think maybe so and so was caught cheating but maybe I don't have the names right". Sure, and I think maybe your mother .... Oh yeah, that was someone else maybe. -- kenberg

"...we live off being battle-scarred veterans who manage to hate our opponents slightly more than we hate each other.” -- Hamman, re: Wolff
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