Pot Odds Poker concept applied to bridge?
#1
Posted 2008-December-18, 01:51
The application of this principle to bridge is inherent in a quotation from a bridge authority that I once read, referring to rubber bridge and assuming you bid rationally, "If you aren't going set half the time you aren't bidding enough." Makes sense with rubber bridge scoring where the game or rubber bonus vs a part-score gives you very good pot odds.
So, do expert bridge players consider the pot odds when playing IMP's. Suppose a hand comes up in which you are very sure of making 2H, probably 3H, hence you have 140 points in hand. If you make game you will score 420 or 620 so the pot odds are attractive, 3 or 4 to 1. Do the favorable pot odds influence your decision whether to bid on? Does this question deserve a wtp answer?
thanks for replies, as always.
#2
Posted 2008-December-18, 03:17
Yep wtp?
I believe that the USA currently hold only the World Championship For People Who Still Bid Like Your Auntie Gladys - dburn
dunno how to play 4 card majors - JLOGIC
True but I know Standard American and what better reason could I have for playing Precision? - Hideous Hog
Bidding is an estimation of probabilities SJ Simon
#3
Posted 2008-December-18, 03:29
#4
Posted 2008-December-18, 03:52
Playing matchpoints, you have to decide what percentage of declarers will be in the spade contract, and make a decision as to whether it is likely that you need +200 for a good score, vs just going plus. That, I think, is something akin to "pot odds" in poker.
#5
Posted 2008-December-18, 04:18
#6
Posted 2008-December-18, 05:54
#7
Posted 2008-December-18, 06:44
Gerben42, on Dec 18 2008, 04:29 AM, said:
#8
Posted 2008-December-18, 10:27
- hrothgar
#9
Posted 2008-December-18, 10:40
Califdude, on Dec 18 2008, 02:51 AM, said:
LOL
#10
Posted 2008-December-18, 14:15
Califdude, on Dec 18 2008, 02:51 AM, said:
Since duplicate bridge is scored using IMPs or Matchpoints, the odds aren't nearly so attractive.
In teams, if you bid game while your opponents only bid a part score, you'll gain 6 or 10 IMPs if the game makes, lose 5 or 6 IMPs if it goes down 1. Add in a little more downside for going down more than 1 or being doubled, and you should bid game when it's 50% non-vulnerable, 40% vulnerable.
In pairs the calculation isn't so simple, because you have to estimate what fraction of the field will bid the game.
#11
Posted 2008-December-18, 14:38
barmar, on Dec 18 2008, 03:15 PM, said:
Actually you don't.
- hrothgar
#12
Posted 2008-December-18, 14:53
1♥ - X - 3♥ - Pass
Pass - X - Pass - 3♠
4♥
Opener was willing to pass out 3♥, but now that opponents have competed to the three level, he has decided to bid game. Is this irrational?
Perhaps not, because the odds have changed. Suppose opener's evaluation is that 4♥ will occasionally make but usually fail (say it's about 25% to make). He sees:
3♥ gets +140 75% and +170 25%
4♥ gets -50 75% and +420 25%
But once 3♠ has been bid, the odds might change to something like:
3♠ gets -140 50% and +50 50%
4♥ gets -50 75% and +420 25%
You can see that bidding 4♥ is much better than defending 3♠, even though declaring 3♥ was better than declaring 4♥. So in effect the opponents bidding has changed the "pot odds" and made bidding a likely-to-fail game a net win.
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#13
Posted 2008-December-18, 15:21
In IMP's you can refer to win/loss raport. I define the win/loss raport as
R=(IMP won x % expected to win)/(IMP lost X % expected to lose). You should take the offensive action if R>=1
For example you have 3♥ in the hand (there is a big chance of making 3♥) and you think if you should bid game or not.
In non vulnerable the win/loss raport will be:
Win=420-170=250 -> you win 6 IMP's if the game makes
Loss=-140-50=-190 -> you lose 5 IMP's if the game fails
For R to be >=1, the expected percentage for bidding the game should be bigger than
5/(5+6)=45,45% In other words if the percentage of success is 45,45% R=1, W=L
W=45,45% *6=2,73
L=54,55%*5=2,73
In vulnerable
W=620-170=450 -> you win 10 IMP's if the game makes
L=-140-100=-240 -> you lose 6 IMP's if the game fails
For R to be >=1, the expected percentage for bidding the game should be bigger than 6/(10+6)=37,5%
Im matchpoints, you should refer to the concept of par. Par means the best result that can be reached by best bidding and best play. In fact there is more than one par: there is a par for N-S, a par for E-W, an absolute par, and we can talk even about "room par". Many strategic decisions can be taken related with the par.
For more informations about this issue i recommend you the book "Winning card play" by Hugh Kelsey.
#14
Posted 2008-December-18, 17:40
For instance, he doesn't like being used as a human shield when we're being shot at.
I happen to think it's a very noble way to meet one's maker, especially for a guy like him.
Bottom line is we never let that difference of opinion interfere with anything."

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