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A pass card issue

#1 User is offline   BudH 

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Posted 2015-June-13, 08:29

Pass-Pass-2NT-Pass
?

At this point, the dealer touched his pass card from his original pass and started to slide it toward him off the table and his LHO then quickly passed, presumably ending the auction. Then dealer says he has not yet passed. What is your ruling, including what to do about dealer's LHO's "final pass"?

[This occurred while I was directing and something I did likely caused a distraction that led to this all occurring -- but I am interested in what the ruling would be assuming no distraction had occurred.]

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#2 User is offline   aguahombre 

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Posted 2015-June-13, 08:45

OP describes what commonly occurs, though not proper procedure. People don't put a new pass card on the table, but show their intent with the old one. I rule that if dealer did that with the original pass card he passed.

Against a LHO who is known to double 2NT contracts (a worn strategy), dealer is trying a double shot. I can think of no legitimate reason dealer would do what he did and not be intending to pass.
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#3 User is offline   lamford 

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Posted 2015-June-13, 08:56

 aguahombre, on 2015-June-13, 08:45, said:

OP describes what commonly occurs, though not proper procedure. People don't put a new pass card on the table, but show their intent with the old one. I rule that if dealer did that with the original pass card he passed.

Against a LHO who is known to double 2NT contracts (a worn strategy), dealer is trying a double shot. I can think of no legitimate reason dealer would do what he did and not be intending to pass.

I don't think your ruling is legal. The dealer has not made a call in any jurisdiction. This is presumably ACBL, where, as we have learnt before:

A call is considered made when a bidding card is removed from the bidding box and held touching or nearly touching the table or maintained in such a position to indicate that the call has been made.
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#4 User is offline   pran 

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Posted 2015-June-13, 09:16

I am not happy With LHO taking a "quick action".

He should have let the dealer complete the action he initiated by "touching his pass card from his original pass and starting to slide it toward him[self] off the table" (for instance by "untouching" his original pass card).

As described I would rule LHO's "final" pass to be premature, but if dealer then "completed" his action in any other way than (in a legal manner) making a bid I would rule that dearer had passed a second time.
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#5 User is offline   blackshoe 

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Posted 2015-June-13, 09:53

Dealer is correct, he has not passed. Technically, LHO has passed out of turn, but I doubt that will matter much in the end, unless declarer's partner does not accept the POOT and declarer now decides to bid. Now the offender is required to pass, and he may not want to. Too bad. Laws 29 and 30, btw.

Depending on the outcome of the TD's investigation, he might give either or both sides a PP.
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