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The first two hands of a tournament Are these reachable?

#1 User is offline   Hanoi5 

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Posted 2012-May-16, 10:38



The diamond void is kinda ugly, but shouldn't a 6-5 move? Hard for me to say, what do you think?

After 12 tricks this came:



The diamond splinter was not 'available', can it still be reached? After the diamond splinter, would you continue (how?)?

 wyman, on 2012-May-04, 09:48, said:

Also, he rates to not have a heart void when he leads the 3.


 rbforster, on 2012-May-20, 21:04, said:

Besides playing for fun, most people also like to play bridge to win


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#2 User is offline   ahydra 

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Posted 2012-May-16, 10:51

Agree West should move on the first one (4S). Second one... I would probably ask for keycards though some might bid 5C in case of two fast heart losers, diamond splinter or not. The club singleton + 5th spade = wonderful.

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#3 User is online   Cyberyeti 

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Posted 2012-May-16, 11:20

I really hate the 1x-1M-4M as a big hand, and these two show why.

You can move on the first, and find partner has QJ, AKxx, AKQx, xxx and you weren't even making 4. We actually use 1-1-3N as 4/4 18+ (18-bad 19 if balanced), but not sure whether this helps here as we normally cue rather than bid a second suit over this.

On the second, what is 4 over 1 ?

Again I would have a gadget to use, I could bid 1-1-2N(GF unbal)-3(semi forced)-4(5+, 4+ to at least one top honour, 0-1 ), but it's not clear that this will excite W with more than half his points in partner's short suit.

The only auction I could construct that would bid the slam while staying out of it when it's bad starts with an improbable 1-1-2.
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#4 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2012-May-16, 12:00

If I bid slam on the first one, they'd lead a club to the A, and ruff the club return :P

On a more serious note, I don't think the East hand is quite worth 4. It is a balanced 18 count with a LTC of 6 and, given that it is 18, a fairly 'soft' hand. I think it is a maximum 3 call, which should still leave West thinking about slam.

I think this is a slam that is easier to bid in a big club method, where the fit and gf are established far, far below the 4 level. As it is, the West hand doesn't possess 5 level safety...I'm not worried, at all, about thinking of hands on which game fails, but it is easy to picture hands that are far 'stronger' than the one actually held on which the 5-level is unsafe: AQx K10xx AKQx xx offers no play for 11 tricks.

Ax AKxx KQxx Kxx is another 'huge' hand, and slam isn't that good a spot.....even if one avoids a club ruff, one still needs to find the club J.

On the second one, I don't understand how we cannot show a splinter. Moreover, assuming the same agreements, doesn't this weirdness make bidding the first one even more problematic?

I assume that on the first hand, opener could have a splinter as well? I would give up at that point....any method that requires the same blunt game bid on both hands is unplayable in a serious game, imo.

But getting back to the problem, on the second hand I think we are a little more slam friendly than the first, primarily because we own an Ace and we don't have a void in what rates to be partner's best suit. I'd bid 5, then 5 over 5, and let opener decide if he has a 'good' hand for slam opposite this one try.

Had opener been able to show diamond shortness, I would again make one try.....if he did so via 4, I would bid 4 if playing last train....in some methods, 4 shows a void (3 being a stiff), and maybe that would slow me down.
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#5 User is offline   chasetb 

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Posted 2012-May-16, 13:42

mikeh pretty much said exactly what I would say, so I gave him an upvote.
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#6 User is offline   rmnka447 

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Posted 2012-May-16, 13:59

Hand # 1 - Partner has shown something like a 19-20 point hand opposite your 5 loser player, so it's certainly worth a try. Since the critical issue is the control, a 4 cue, if available, would work best.

Hand #2 - It's harder for West to take action toward slam on this hand. But the hand is a 7 loser hand opposite at worst a 5 loser hand. The concern is the suit, so it's probably best to cue the A.

East could have made slam a whole lot easier to bid by reversing to 2 rather than jumping to 4 . West could make a positive raise to 3 , then East can show spade support (and by inference the shortness). Now West has no problem using RKCB.


If you don't play splinters, then using reverses to bid out the pattern of a very strong supporting hand is quite useful. But the reversing hand should have good honor texture in the non trump suits.
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#7 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2012-May-16, 15:45

hand one is extremelly easy if east shows balanced 18-19 and west autosplinters. The autosplinter is a bit close though. I don't understand moving over 4 with void in aprtner's long suit.

Second one is really tougher, even if splinter is avaible it might go something like:

1-1
4-4 (last train)
5-5 (I have void... ugh! I don't like it)
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