after trap pass
#1
Posted 2011-December-20, 09:21
♥AK74
♦KQ72
♣Q72
all vul, MPs, partner deals
1 ♦ - ( 1 ♥ ) -pass-(pass)
double-(pass)-pass-( 1 ♠)
pass -(pass)-??
Many of you will probably disagree with passing 1♥, but just in general, how do you continue after this?
#2
Posted 2011-December-20, 09:28
I don't see what you can do immediately other than bid 2♠. Partner will take you for a strong hand with hearts, which is not too far off base. You can support diamonds later and see where it all leads.
If partner bids NT, you can make a quantitative invite. Normally, when all of the high card strength is concentrated in one opponent's hand, the hand becomes easier to play. That may still be true, but your hand contains little in the way of positional strength.
There may be a spade weakness for NT purposes. Hopefully we can sort everything out.
#3
Posted 2011-December-20, 09:53
maybe pard is:
Jxx...x.....Axxxx...AKxx
and we can beat it 3 at mp.
#5
Posted 2011-December-20, 10:14
Fluffy, on 2011-December-20, 09:21, said:
♥AK74
♦KQ72
♣Q72
all vul, MPs, partner deals
1 ♦ - ( 1 ♥ ) -pass-(pass)
double-(pass)-pass-( 1 ♠)
pass -(pass)-??
Many of you will probably disagree with passing 1♥, but just in general, how do you continue after this?
Trap pass previous round is not a matter of agreement or disagreement. This is not a matter of style either, this is plain terrible judgement. Why would someone take the risk of 1♥ being passed out when opener holds 3 of them and looking at 18 hcp in his hand as responder ?
I would cue now.
"It's only when a mosquito lands on your testicles that you realize there is always a way to solve problems without using violence!"
"Well to be perfectly honest, in my humble opinion, of course without offending anyone who thinks differently from my point of view, but also by looking into this matter in a different perspective and without being condemning of one's view's and by trying to make it objectified, and by considering each and every one's valid opinion, I honestly believe that I completely forgot what I was going to say."
#6
Posted 2011-December-20, 11:03
Fluffy, on 2011-December-20, 09:21, said:
MrAce, on 2011-December-20, 10:14, said:
I would cue now.
Two profound expressions of the obvious; followed by a good answer to the question about what to do to try and fix it. Not sure we can fix it, but 2S is a start.
#10
Posted 2011-December-20, 12:15
diamonds 3-2 with ♦A onside meant an easy ride to 12 tricks but not sure if I should play it. 1♠X -> 500 (bottom), 1♥X->1100 (almost top)
#11
Posted 2011-December-20, 12:32
Fluffy, on 2011-December-20, 11:16, said:
Cyberyeti, on 2011-December-20, 11:33, said:
That's my problem with the original trap pass of 1H. Can we really be sure that a hand which wanted to defend 1HX opposite a likely singleton and which was willing to take the chance of defending 1H undoubled can now actually support diamonds in a force and expect opener to believe we have 4+ of them?
#12
Posted 2011-December-20, 12:32
I guess my x of 1s deserved its bottom for its gamble. I understood 2s.
good discussion of the trap pass in the first place.
#13
Posted 2011-December-20, 13:41
aguahombre, on 2011-December-20, 12:32, said:
No, but when he bids 3N you have to bid 4♦, then he will.
#14
Posted 2011-December-20, 14:49
Fluffy, on 2011-December-20, 12:15, said:
diamonds 3-2 with ♦A onside meant an easy ride to 12 tricks but not sure if I should play it. 1♠X -> 500 (bottom), 1♥X->1100 (almost top)
How about 1H undoubled? Does that score well?
Quote
I would cue now.
Jesus this.
#15
Posted 2011-December-20, 15:00
I'd surely hope that N passed in tempo....if any N twitched against me, then passed, and dealer doubled, we'd be dealing with the director once I saw the hands...and I don't call directors often on hesitations.
As it is, I agree with the 2♠ bid given the conditions of contest, and thereafter, 3♦ over 2N has to be forcing. I'd expect partner to play me for longer and stronger hearts (tho his holding the Q would suggest otherwise...it's not a card he rates to hold), and my 2♠ was a gf....I'd have bid 3♦ in reopening position rather than 2♠ if I didn't want to force.
But then I'd subside over 3N. In general, AKxx is a good holding but when the auction (incorrectly) tells us that partner has at most xx and often x in the suit, we should be down-grading. And partner's signing off over the strongest diamond raise we can now make suggests that he is minimum....he has bid exactly as if he has a 12-14 count 4=1=4=4=, and this hand will play for less than its combined hcp would warrant. It's not that I think 4N will be in jeopardy, but that he will bid too much on maximums, and for the wrong reason.
#16
Posted 2011-December-20, 16:07
mikeh, on 2011-December-20, 15:00, said:
I'd surely hope that N passed in tempo....if any N twitched against me, then passed, and dealer doubled, we'd be dealing with the director once I saw the hands...and I don't call directors often on hesitations.
Meh, in fairness it is a really common thing to do to reopen with that hand (though I agree with you that it is quite bad and imo an error). People just don't tend to sell out to 1H with a doubleton heart. I actually think I learned through Freds postings here that you should pass with Hx and a weak NT hand type (esp all vul, esp with only 3 spades).
#17
Posted 2011-December-20, 17:15
Surely not an attempt to play!, is it revealing a possible psyche?
#18
Posted 2011-December-20, 17:55
jmcw, on 2011-December-20, 17:15, said:
Surely not an attempt to play!, is it revealing a possible psyche?
It's definitely suggesting hearts as a trump suit. I think it should be non-forcing too - if you had a game-force you could bid 3♥.
#19
Posted 2011-December-20, 17:55
jmcw, on 2011-December-20, 17:15, said:
Surely not an attempt to play!, is it revealing a possible psyche?
Most definitely an attempt to play. You showed good hearts (passing 1H X), then you competed to 2H.

Help
