In this competitive auction there was a slight, but discernable, BIT by North after RHO's 3♥ call. East summoned the TD (me) and asked for protection. North agreed to the BIT and the auction continued.
As it happens, I had just played this board the previous round, and I knew that 8 tricks were the limit for both sides. (Playing in 4♠ as North, a defensive error allowed me to escape for one off.)
Upon returning to the table at the end of the round, I asked West something like "I assume that you weren't damaged on (this hand)?" He agreed that they would not be seeking an adjustment. "You're not making 3♥", I noted, and he agreed.
Upon looking at the (electronic) traveler at the end of the session, I discovered that NS at this table had made 3♠ for +140 NS! This scored zero matchpoints for EW. Apparently they looked at the South hand (when it came down as dummy) and decided he "had his bid".
I don't have the exact hand in front of me, but it was along the lines of ♠xxx ♥x ♦AKxxx ♣QT9x. Not the worst 3♠ bid I've ever seen, but pass is clearly (IMO) a LA.
I don't know how the play went, but I am certain that EW's defense did not rise to the level of SEWoG.
Taking into account the agreed BIT, the LA to the 3♠ call, and the careless but not SEWoG defense that allowed 3♠ to make, if EW had recalled me to the table asking for an adjustment to 3♥ -1, I would surely have complied. But they didn't ask. Maybe they were embarrassed by their defense.
So my general question is: as a TD, if you believe that an adjusted score is warranted, but the (putatively-) damaged side does not ask for redress, should you go ahead and adjust anyway?