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Is this simple?

#1 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 02:44

IMPs, NS Vulnerable


This felt like a tempo-sensitive situation at the table but even now when I have more time to consider I am still unsure what is best.

Partner's 2 is competitive and forcing for one round. You do not play good/bad 2NT.

Which calls do you consider and what is your final choice? It is not an appeal/ruling question, I was just unhappy with my choice.
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#2 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 03:49

I would bid 4.
Raising is likely to be better only if you can make six, which is possible if partner has AK and A. With that much he might move over 4 anyway.
If opponents continue with 4, I will next bid 5 next even if partner doubles. Too risky to leave the double in with so much support for . If 5 goes down I do not expect to get doubled.
I see 2 distant alternatives: 3 or 3, with the intention of bidding 4 next. This assumes that 3 is unlikely to get passed out. Neither alternative does justice to the suit.

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#3 User is offline   hotShot 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 04:01

Opps and partners bidding made 4 very attractive, 3 or 3 won't get me there.

Hopping that partner has 2s and that he covers my loser seems not asking to much.

So I would bid 4.
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#4 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 08:37

I wanna play 4 however I'd only bid 3 cos I consider it forcing.
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#5 User is offline   mikeh 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 09:15

I want to play 4 most of the time as well, but I want to play 6 opposite as little as xxx x AKxxx Axxx, and no number of hearts is going to get me there.

This isn't matchpoints, so +600 in 5 rather than +650 in hearts is no big deal. I think I will bid 3...this preserves some chance of playing hearts (say he bids 3N..now I bid 4) while also allowing us to find some diamond slams.

4 is aimed more directly at slam and may turn out to have been the best choice, but I don't think I want to commit to diamonds quite as strongly as that call suggests.

Tough problem....at mps, I agree with 3, so long as I am sure partner will take it as forcing, since it (slightly) preserves diamond possibilities: at least compared to 4.
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#6 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 09:36

3, good hand with a fit. will rebid 4 next, good hand with a fit and interest in too. I will not conceal my fit sorry everyone

jumping in this suit is far too unilateral to me, partner will pass me with x or not even x in hearts, what will I tell him then?
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#7 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 10:17

3 is one of those funny splinters, no? - since our pass is forcing over 2 (I hope!).

FYI, I do not play g/b after a two level response.
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#8 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 11:53

I'd bid 3, given the methods. Wouldn't it be nice to be able to bid 2NT to show a diamond raise?
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#9 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 14:28

I'd bid 3S. I don't think pass is forcing, and I don't think that 3S is a funny splinter. Fluffy's suggestion that 3H is forcing makes this thread completely bizarre.

Whether you bid 3S, 4D, 4H, 4S, 5D, I don't think that there is anything time-sensitive about these calls.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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#10 User is offline   l milne 

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Posted 2010-December-01, 17:50

Agree with Han.

I would've thought 2NT is 6 4 with 3 showing 55+.
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#11 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 04:41

Why would 3 be a funny splinter? It's just a cuebid...
No idea if pass should be forcing, I wouldn't consider it forcing actually.

3 seems like a good start, lets see what partner tells us.
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#12 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 05:45

View Posthan, on 2010-December-01, 14:28, said:

Whether you bid 3S, 4D, 4H, 4S, 5D, I don't think that there is anything time-sensitive about these calls.

I was thinking that if you were considering making a non-forcing bid, such as 3 or 4, then you'd prefer to do it tempo. Which would mean you have to think about the other possibilities quickly.
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#13 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 05:48

On the actual hand it mattered little what you do. My partner even bid the diamond slam after I wimped out bid a strategic 3.

My concern about 4 was missing a diamond slam. My concern about 3 was continuations if LHO bid 4. My choice was made on the basis that I could catch up later, if there was a later. As I said, I was unhappy with my bidding on this.

Thanks for the contributions.
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#14 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 07:33

paul I am a bit puzzled with the definition of "competitive and forcing for one round"

What is the worst hand partner would bid it on?. Can he pass if we bid 2 over 2?
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#15 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 08:40

View PostFluffy, on 2010-December-02, 07:33, said:

paul I am a bit puzzled with the definition of "competitive and forcing for one round"

What is the worst hand partner would bid it on?. Can he pass if we bid 2 over 2?

2 would not be forcing over 2, if partner has bid with a misfitting nine count. I think 'competitive' means an ultra-light 2/1, so minimum of 8 or 9 points with a fair (6-card) suit.
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#16 User is offline   nige1 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 08:49

View Postpaulg, on 2010-December-01, 02:44, said:


IMPs, NS Vulnerable
Partner's 2 is competitive and forcing for one round. You do not play good/bad 2NT.
This felt like a tempo-sensitive situation at the table but even now when I have more time to consider I am still unsure what is best.
Which calls do you consider and what is your final choice? It is not an appeal/ruling question, I was just unhappy with my choice.
IMO 3 = 10, 4 = 9, 4 = 8. 3 = 7
4 is best if it shows this kind of hand, conventionally.
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#17 User is offline   Phil 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 10:01

View PostFree, on 2010-December-02, 04:41, said:

Why would 3 be a funny splinter? It's just a cuebid...
No idea if pass should be forcing, I wouldn't consider it forcing actually.

3 seems like a good start, lets see what partner tells us.


Maybe someone else can provide the link but in several places we have discussed an auction like:

1 - pass - 2 - 2;
3

and a sizable and intelligent group thought this was a splinter. Why not a cuebid? Because you do not need a cue since we are in a forcing pass auction, which prompted my question to Paul.
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#18 User is offline   paulg 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 11:09

In the UK I would not expect pass to be forcing over 2, though gnasher may correct me.

For the majority of players this is because light 2/1s in Acol mean that a force through 2NT (or higher) has not been created. Gnasher or Frances probably has more insight into the top English players, but it doesn't feel a forcing auction to me.
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#19 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 16:04

View PostPhil, on 2010-December-02, 10:01, said:

Maybe someone else can provide the link but in several places we have discussed an auction like:

1 - pass - 2 - 2;
3

and a sizable and intelligent group thought this was a splinter. Why not a cuebid? Because you do not need a cue since we are in a forcing pass auction, which prompted my question to Paul.


That's (probably) a very different auction. If you found a sizeable group of people to discuss this sequence, they were probably discussing a game-forcing 2.

In Paul's sequence, 2 is forcing only as far as 2. I don't think it's normal for such a call to set up a forcing pass above 2.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#20 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-December-02, 18:37

Seems that the difference is paul's 2is forcing but doesn't promise a rebid
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