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ATB

Poll: ATB (41 member(s) have cast votes)

Who's to blame?

  1. North 100% (3 votes [7.32%])

    Percentage of vote: 7.32%

  2. North mostly (9 votes [21.95%])

    Percentage of vote: 21.95%

  3. Both around 50% (3 votes [7.32%])

    Percentage of vote: 7.32%

  4. South mostly (7 votes [17.07%])

    Percentage of vote: 17.07%

  5. South 100% (19 votes [46.34%])

    Percentage of vote: 46.34%

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#1 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-October-23, 13:48

This may be trivial, but I also wanted to test the new hand generator B)

IMP scoring, 1 shows 4+


Obviously both black Kings were onside, were 4-0 (East holding 4) but game was still on. Who's to blame for missing game?
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#2 User is offline   mr1303 

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Posted 2010-October-23, 16:27

South. He has a 2C opener and knows of 4 card heart support opposite. I guess you can conceive layouts where game might not make, but they are almost certainly odds against. I might bid game regardless as North, but South takes 99% of the blame here.
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#3 User is offline   BunnyGo 

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Posted 2010-October-23, 17:26

View PostFree, on 2010-October-23, 13:48, said:

This may be trivial, but I also wanted to test the new hand generator B)

IMP scoring, 1 shows 4+


Obviously both black Kings were onside, were 4-0 (East holding 4) but game was still on. Who's to blame for missing game?


80% North, 20% South. South has made a game forcing 2 cuebid (not necessarily showing heart support) and then followed by bidding 3 instead of blasting to 4; North should not pass this sequence but just bid 4 himself. I think that South should probably just bid 4 hearts himself, but it isn't completely unreasonable that north could have the K of hearts and spades and then 6 is a decent bet.
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#4 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2010-October-23, 17:55

A double followed by a cue followed by a raise of advancer's suit needs to show something like a 20 ct with 3 of that suit. How else could one sensibly bid AKxx AQx xx AKxx?

A double followed by a cue followed by a new suit is GF.

A double followed by a jump raise of partner's suit is highly invitational and confirms a fit. It's obviously stronger than a single raise of partner's suit. Had South bid this way, North should accept game.

South should drive to game over a 1H advance. The way he bid it, North should pass because he doesn't have a fifth heart (Kxxxx would be enough to accept game opposite this bidding).

So South gets 100% of the blame here.
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#5 User is offline   mfa1010 

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Posted 2010-October-23, 19:00

It may be discussed if north has a raise to 4 or not, but south definitely has to eat 100% of the blame here. It is not reasonable not to force to game when partner responds 1, and 3 in this sequence is not forcing.
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#6 User is offline   kayin801 

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Posted 2010-October-23, 19:49

South is a chikun. And a chicken.
I once yelled at my partner for discarding the 'wrong' card when he was subjected to a squeeze that I allowed by giving the wrong count with too high a card. Now he's allowed to pitch aces when the opponents have the king in the dummy. At trick 2. When he could have followed suit. And blame me.

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#7 User is offline   mtvesuvius 

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Posted 2010-October-23, 19:56

Definitely South. 2 is not GF, but showed a big hand... Partner has 3+ and they have to lead something. Not bidding game gives South 100% of the blame IMO

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#8 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-October-24, 01:46

View Poststraube, on 2010-October-23, 17:55, said:

A double followed by a cue followed by a raise of advancer's suit needs to show something like a 20 ct with 3 of that suit. How else could one sensibly bid AKxx AQx xx AKxx?

Dbl, followed by 2, followed by 3 perhaps? :rolleyes:

South's reasoning for not blasting to game was that North could potentially have a 3 card suit with 0HCP (North never promissed anything, and what to do with a 3=3=4=3?), so 3 just asks to bid 4 if North has "something useful". Was he too pessimistic?
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#9 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2010-October-24, 02:48

View PostFree, on 2010-October-24, 01:46, said:

Dbl, followed by 2, followed by 3 perhaps? :rolleyes:

South's reasoning for not blasting to game was that North could potentially have a 3 card suit with 0HCP (North never promissed anything, and what to do with a 3=3=4=3?), so 3 just asks to bid 4 if North has "something useful". Was he too pessimistic?


This is true, but I think it is too pessimistic to assume that partner is broke and also does not have a suit either. It happens but it is very infrequent. More frequent in Bidding Challenges than real life.
Much more likely that you will miss game than getting a disaster by bidding 4. Bridge is a game of incomplete information and requires judgment.
By the way I do not like the standard practice of rebidding a three card suit in response to a takeout double and a cue-bid. If you hold 3=3=4=3 and are too weak to bid notrump even in response to a cuebid you can anticipate what will happen if you respond in a 3 card major. I prefer to respond with a somewhat eccentric 2. This is not foolproof but much less likely to excite partner and if he still cuebids I will then bid 2. My second choice would be to respond 1 followed by 2 over the cuebid.

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#10 User is offline   rhm 

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Posted 2010-October-24, 03:00

View Poststraube, on 2010-October-23, 17:55, said:

A double followed by a cue followed by a raise of advancer's suit needs to show something like a 20 ct with 3 of that suit. How else could one sensibly bid AKxx AQx xx AKxx?



What about letting it go at 2?

With (substantially) more you can either continue with 2NT or cuebid again with 3 cards in , so that partner can bid 4 with nothing but a 5 card suit.

Rainer Herrmann
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#11 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-October-24, 12:04

The real question is if 2 shows 4 cards or not, should you bid 2NT with 3343 or maybe 2? what about 2353?.

IMO north has enough extras for raising 3. 1 is 0-7(8), 2 was minimum 0-4 maybe? now he is got a big card and partner is really insisting.

I also think south is worth 4 over 2. When 4 small cards in a suit rebid is enough to give a shot at game, you have to be in game.
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#12 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-October-25, 09:14

I hope I found the right thread now!

It is often the case - a super strong hand makes some super strong action that is almost forcing. Then the other guy holding a balanced 3 count doesn't "man up" and gets yelled at (I'm not saying that anyone at your table did this). It is just wrong to wait for the weak hand to always "appreciate how strong his hand is". Just bid game and don't expect the weak balanced hand to help you, sometimes he won't help you even if he's supposed to, it's just psychological. Just bid game and avoid the big blame game (the same goes for slam auctions a bit too but not so dramatically - bidding a no play slam when a good game was available is often very bad but bidding a no play game when a good partscore on the 3 level was available is very rarely bad).
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#13 User is offline   straube 

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Posted 2010-October-25, 09:34

View PostFree, on 2010-October-24, 01:46, said:

Dbl, followed by 2, followed by 3 perhaps? :rolleyes:

South's reasoning for not blasting to game was that North could potentially have a 3 card suit with 0HCP (North never promissed anything, and what to do with a 3=3=4=3?), so 3 just asks to bid 4 if North has "something useful". Was he too pessimistic?



I don't think so because 3D would promise another bid, right (assuming that partner had not bid game)? And cue bidding and then raising partner's suit would show a good but limited hand with some doubt as to strain.
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#14 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2010-October-25, 14:39

North 100%. 4 is automatic.

South is obviously insane, hence free from guilt. (4 is has some play facing 432/9754/432/432)
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#15 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2010-October-25, 15:57

I would bid more with south.

2 and then 3 will often only deliver three hearts.

I would never raise with this north hand.
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#16 User is offline   bucky 

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Posted 2010-October-25, 18:54

Can I assign 100% for both?

The cuebid after double is often based on 3-card in partner's suit. But 3 should change this message. With only 3-card hearts and no clear direction (but too good to pass 2), South should've followed up with 3. Therefore North has a clear 4 bid. Of course that doesn't mean South is less guilty: had North not held K, game is still good, so South should insist on game. And we arrive at a familiar pattern again: it takes two to reach the disaster.
 
 
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#17 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 01:33

View Postbucky, on 2010-October-25, 18:54, said:

Can I assign 100% for both?

No, that's statistically impossible. :P
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#18 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 08:41

Definitely both, I think Oleberg said it best.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

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Posted 2010-October-26, 14:18

View PostOleBerg, on 2010-October-25, 14:39, said:

North 100%. 4 is automatic.

South is obviously insane, hence free from guilt. (4 is has some play facing 432/9754/432/432)


Well said. Actually North is a favorite to have 5 on the bidding. Finesses figure to be on, and the suit should provide an entry or two.
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#20 User is offline   ArtK78 

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Posted 2010-October-26, 14:57

View PostFree, on 2010-October-24, 01:46, said:

Dbl, followed by 2, followed by 3 perhaps? :rolleyes:

South's reasoning for not blasting to game was that North could potentially have a 3 card suit with 0HCP (North never promissed anything, and what to do with a 3=3=4=3?), so 3 just asks to bid 4 if North has "something useful". Was he too pessimistic?

This post reminds me of one of the greatest at-the-table disasters I have ever heard about.

Playing in a Swiss qualifying for the district GNT, a couple of friends of mine who were very experienced players got into an auction after the opponents opened 1. One of them had an extremely strong hand. He doubled and, over his partner's response, bid 2. This was doubled and, after his partner passed, the take-out doubler redoubled. His partner bid something, and he bid 3. Again, this was doubled, and the take-out doubler redoubled again. Again, his partner bid something, and again the takeout doubler cue bid spades. Once again it was doubled and redoubled. Now, though, the partner of the takeout doubler got very confused and PASSED! This went for a huge number while they were cold for a vulnerable small slam.

At the other table, his teammates had succeeded in stealing the hand at 2 and MADE IT for +110 opposite a vulnerable slam!

The loss on this board (I think it wound up being 22 IMPs) cost them the match and qualification.

On a side note, one of the teammates who was +110 in 2 at the other table had recently given up smoking. After the score comparison, he left the table, bought some cigarettes and went outside to smoke!
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