[Little Kid]

Scoring: MP

1♣-1♦
2NT-?

---

You're playing short club and do not have any fancy methods to make a mild slam try in ♦s below 3NT. Should we have found this great slam instead of going down 3 in 3NT?

[Cascade]

Does that mean that 3♦ is non-forcing?

[Cyberyeti]

I think you can bid 4♦ over 2N provided 4N would be a signoff and 4♥ asks for aces over this. You have the values that if pard bids 4N you should make it.

[Fluffy]

I think even if 3♦ is forcing I'd bid 3NT


EDIT: just to clarify, I'd bid 3NT as south, even if 3♦ is avaible.

[benlessard]

looking for slam here is a joke. It would take north a near perfect 5 covers cards hand.

AK in both M+minor A to have a slam above 60%. (wich mean any hand with 2J, or with K or Q clubs doesnt lead to a good slam)

So 3nt going down for me.

[gwnn]

good lead opps

[ONEferBRID]

I'm afraid I would only get to 3NT even without a short Cl open.
For example:
1D - 3C! ( Criss-cross = limit+ for Diam )
3NT

If I went past 3NT, with say a splinter, I'd be guilty of double-dummy bidding:
1D - 4C!
etc to 6D.

[P_Marlowe]

Playing MP, I think 3NT is a sensible bid.

If you have agreements, that allow you to stop in 4NT,
than South is certainly strong enough to make a try, but
only than.

With kind regards
Marlowe

[phil_20686]

I'm reasonably confident that I would have reached 6d at the table. I play a short club with 1c-3d showing an invitational hand with a "good" 6+ card suit. After this it seems fairly normal to play in diamonds rather than 3NT. Any hand where partner has 3 clubs will be cold for 11 tricks probably. As little as KQxxxx d and Axx clubs makes a very good slam. A single round of cuebidding should be pleny to reach the slam. A club control with the diamond hand will always have play for 12 tricks I think, although maybe not as much as one would like.

Presumeably everyone has some way to show an invitational hand with a good 6 card suit? in std systems would that not be something like 1c-1d-2n-3d. If ever north has a 2N rebid that wants to play in diamonds this must be it, with a small doubleton and all in aces and kings. Re bidding 3N on this hand means you are rebidding 3N always opposite a 6 card suit in which case why is partner bothering to bid 3d? SUrely 3d always suggests you might want to play in 5d opposite a suitable hand? And my 2NT rebid cannot be more suitable.

[Cascade]

I think 3NT here is bizarre when partner could have two or three or four small clubs or some other weak holding.

Its not simply a matter of looking for slam needing so much but the need to be in a good game.

When you play a short club you need to be even more wary of a shortage in that suit since your methods have in most cases prevented the opponents from telling you about their ♣KQJxxx or similar which they just might consider as the opening lead.

[dake50]

We'd find 6D.
1C F1 frees 2D for real 5+D. C-short next. Partner sees M-AKAK. Not C-void for grand.

[pooltuna]

Little Kid, on Oct 14 2010, 05:14 AM, said:

Scoring: MP

1♣-1♦
2NT-?

---

You're playing short club and do not have any fancy methods to make a mild slam try in ♦s below 3NT. Should we have found this great slam instead of going down 3 in 3NT?

Yet another advertisement for better minor?

[Cyberyeti]

Works OK if you open a 4 card heart too, 1♥-2♦-2N(GF not necessarily bal)-3♦-4♦-5♣-6♦. The only worry is that you might be missing 7 as would be bid the same way with a stiff A♣ in the diamond hand.

[junyi_zhu]

Little Kid, on Oct 14 2010, 10:14 AM, said:

Scoring: MP

1♣-1♦
2NT-?

---

You're playing short club and do not have any fancy methods to make a mild slam try in ♦s below 3NT. Should we have found this great slam instead of going down 3 in 3NT?

that's why I never understand why so many play 1C to show 2 or more. It just puts way too many hand types to 1C and make 1D opening less frequent. Therefore, it would be very difficult to set up trumps in clubs, especially after preemptive bids or 2NT jump rebids by the opener.
After a 1D 2H(invitational) sequence and seeking for shortness, the reach of 6D is indeed very possible.

[Zelandakh]

pooltuna, on Oct 14 2010, 07:30 PM, said:

Yet another advertisement for better minor?

Looks more like an advertisement for strong club to me.

[Little Kid]

Surely, if anything, this is an advertisement for more accurate methods over 2NT?

[ceeb]

I agree with benlessard that looking for slam after2NT is expecting miracles. Even considering 5♦ rather than 3NT seems to me very far-fetched.

I question the 2NT response. I realize that it was stipulated as part of the problem but it seems a distortion. Add the system-imposed distortion of opening 1♣ and there seems no reason to expect the system can now right itself.

[NickRW]

Well, it seems to me that 3♦ over 2N needs to be forcing to stand a chance of dealing with this, given the conditions imposed by the OP. I thought 1x-1M-2N-3M was forcing, choice of games for all but beginners - why should this be any different?

[keylime]

In one partnership, I play this sequence as a mild slam try for a minor:

1m-1x
2NT-3C
3D-3NT

Since diamonds were bid here, I'd assume diamonds is the suit in question. The problem is, you're control deficient for this bid. Just bid the normal 3NT here and strongly consider ditching short club.

[RJWP]

dake50, on Oct 14 2010, 02:13 PM, said:

We'd find 6D.
1C F1 frees 2D for real 5+D. C-short next. Partner sees M-AKAK. Not C-void for grand.

I agree completely:

1♣ f1R frees 2♦ I play it as mini multi either 1-suited ♦ or a weak jump shift in ♥/♠, short clubs will be bid on the next round.