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1NT or 2M?

#1 User is offline   Little Kid 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 03:18

I'm having some trouble judging when to remove 1N to 2M at MPs after the auction 1x-1M-1NT. I thought on really minimal hands you should pull because you don't have the controls and entries to set up your long suit anyway, making 1NT a a long shot. On slightly stronger hands gambling 1NT seems ok as you can eventually set up your suit on hcp strength and maybe outscore 2M at MPs. If you have a singleton always pull 1N. With 5422 sit for it at the top of your range and correct with anything less than 10 or so. That is what I've been doing so far but I always seems to get it wrong :) Any suggestions?

Your agreements:
- 1NT rebids shows BAL hands, can have 4 after 1x-1-1NT.
- Opener can raise 1M on 3card support with a singleton or void somewhere.

The auction is always 1-1-1NT, what would you do with:

a)
832
T8732
A3
J73

B )
542
AQJT3
84
832

c)
Q3
J9854
J76
Q95

d)
QT9
QJ542
J54
K32

e)
KT93
T9642
Q3
Q7

f)
8743
Q9653
K4
Ax
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#2 User is offline   MFA 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 03:28

I would pull all of them to 2, except for d) which is perfect for 1NT with its 5333 shape :).
I'm close to passing with c) only.
Michael Askgaard
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#3 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 04:35

If this

Quote

1NT rebids shows BAL hands

means that opener can't have a singleton, I would bid on any hand where I had a five-card sut, unless it was a scattered 9-10 count in a 5332 shape.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#4 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 04:48

Always 2M I think. Maybe some bizzare hands may pass.
If you find 5-3 fit it's huge gain whiel 5-2 is on average just as good as 1NT i believe.
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#5 User is offline   Little Kid 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 04:55

gnasher, on Jul 25 2010, 05:35 AM, said:

If this

Quote

1NT rebids shows BAL hands

means that opener can't have a singleton, I would bid on any hand where I had a five-card sut, unless it was a scattered 9-10 count in a 5332 shape.

On this auction it means there is no singleton, although after 1-1-1NT I suppose 3-1-4-5 is still possible. Would that affect your decision after starting with 1?
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#6 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 04:58

Quote

On this auction it means there is no singleton, although after 1♣-1♥-1NT I suppose 3-1-4-5 is still possible. Would that affect your decision after starting with 1♣?


Yes, as now we can have disastrous result playing 5-1 fit.
I don't know what hand I would pass I think this style of bidding sucks hard. Probably only bidding 2M with KQTxx etc.
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#7 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 07:28

a) pass
b ) 2; in 1NT this is gambling that partner will be able to not only set up the but access them after he sets them up.
c) pass scattered values are more useful in 1NT
d) pass; 1NT probably will play better
e) pass
f) pass
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#8 User is offline   Fluffy 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 08:09

2 on all of them, that's the reason why 1NT promises 2 cards.
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#9 User is offline   gordontd 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 09:19

I'd rebid 2 on the first two, pass on the rest. But I'd be happier with a style in which opener more frequently raised to 2 rather than rebidding 1NT with three-card support.
Gordon Rainsford
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#10 User is offline   jdonn 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 09:46

Because a singleton is so unlikely I would ignore that possibility, even if you reach a bad 5-1 fit the opponents don't know it's a bad 5-1 fit and that may help you in the play.
Please let me know about any questions or interest or bug reports about GIB.
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#11 User is offline   MickyB 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 11:04

If you sort out a way to show a weak hand with 4S5H after 1m:1H, 1NT, your life will be better.
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#12 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 11:23

With my regular partners, we never rebid 1NT with a stiff or void, and I always rebid 2M with 5. Like everything else, it's imperfect, but I never miss a 5-3 fit, and I never play a 5-1. Once upon a time, I ran simulations that showed that the 5-2 fits were about as good as 1NT on par, and the 5-3 fits were better by somewhere in between 1/2-trick and 3/4 trick, as I recall.
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IV: ace 333: pot should be game, idk

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#13 User is offline   Lobowolf 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 11:25

Little Kid, on Jul 25 2010, 05:55 AM, said:

gnasher, on Jul 25 2010, 05:35 AM, said:

If this

Quote

1NT rebids shows BAL hands

means that opener can't have a singleton, I would bid on any hand where I had a five-card sut, unless it was a scattered 9-10 count in a 5332 shape.

On this auction it means there is no singleton, although after 1-1-1NT I suppose 3-1-4-5 is still possible. Would that affect your decision after starting with 1?

3-1-4-5 minimum is a 1 opener for me.
1. LSAT tutor for rent.

Call me Desdinova...Eternal Light

C. It's the nexus of the crisis and the origin of storms.

IV: ace 333: pot should be game, idk

e: "Maybe God remembered how cute you were as a carrot."
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#14 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 11:32

My experience with this has apparently been different from most others. I've seen very few hands where a 5-2 major fit on this auction plays better than 1NT, and quite a few hands where even a 5-3 major fit plays worse. This seems to be different from auctions where opener has the five card major and responder is weak with a doubleton in support (where I agree that the 5-2 major fit is comparable to 1NT in terms of scores). I think it has to do with strength/location of values. Perhaps this is worthy of some simulation.
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#15 User is offline   bluecalm 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 12:58

I can do simuls, just tell me some example hands for 1 bidder.
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#16 User is offline   nigel_k 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 13:29

Very good post and it would be good to have simulation results for any of those hands. It does depend on how often you raise with three. I would normally only do so with a shortage or for positional reasons, e.g. xx AQx AKxxx xxx, but for a simulation it might be adequate to just assume all balanced hands bid 1NT.

I would pull with B and pass all the others, though I don't have much confidence in my judgment in this area.
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#17 User is offline   OleBerg 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 13:43

MFA, on Jul 25 2010, 11:28 AM, said:

I would pull all of them to 2, except for d) which is perfect for 1NT with its 5333 shape :P.
I'm close to passing with c) only.

Agree. (I would probably not have noticed the 14.th card though.)
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We should always assume 2/1 unless otherwise stated, because:

- If the original poster didn't bother to state his system, that means that he thinks it's obvious what he's playing. The only people who think this are 2/1 players.


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#18 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 14:05

<3 5-2 fitz
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#19 User is offline   pooltuna 

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Posted 2010-July-25, 14:34

bluecalm, on Jul 25 2010, 01:58 PM, said:

I can do simuls, just tell me some example hands for 1 bidder.

I would suggest b ) and c)
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#20 User is offline   awm 

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Posted 2010-July-28, 14:56

I'd be interested in looking at the following.

Opener has 12-14 high card points with:

2-4
2-3
4-5
2-4

At most one doubleton (so not 4252 or 2254).

Responder has 6-9 hcp with one of:

(1) 5-332 (any doubleton)
(2) exactly 5 and a four-card black suit (5422/5431)

In each case, compare the score for playing 1NT by opener versus playing 2 by responder. If the averages seem close, it may be worth also controlling based on the quality of responder's heart suit somehow.

The responder shapes/hands are selected for the following reasons. I wanted to exclude super-weak responder hands where 1NT would have no play and it might be best to bid 2 "on a prayer." I wanted to exclude hands which might make an aggressive invite via NMF (especially if they can play 2 on a decline). I wanted to exclude hands with 4 because 2 could easily be the best final contract (known 4-4 fit assuming 4333 opens 1).
Adam W. Meyerson
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