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Mechanical error England UK

#61 User is offline   bluejak 

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  Posted 2009-September-18, 06:18

gnasher, on Sep 18 2009, 09:24 AM, said:

bluejak, on Sep 18 2009, 01:23 AM, said:

I believe that when a person makes a strange bid 99.9% of people call over it without any thought of asking whether he meant it.

But we're talking about a situation where

bluejak, on Sep 14 2009, 09:56 PM, said:

North bid 5NT, obviously intending to bid 5.

To make absolutely sure that I hadn't misunderstood the situation you described, I asked:

gnasher, on Sep 15 2009, 04:18 PM, said:

As I understand your description of the situation, it's obvious to everybody except North that 5NT was a mechanical error.  Is that correct?

So, unless we've been talking at cross purposes for then past twenty posts, we're not talking about something East thinks is a "strange bid"; we're talking about something that East knows, or is almost certain, is a mechanical error. The action I have been discussing is East's bidding over what he believes to be a mechanical error. If East didn't think it was a mechanical error, or just didn't think at all, of course I wouldn't criticise him.

Ok, but I still think that this is not a position where players will tell their opponent that he has done the wrong thing. They will not know whether it is legal to do so - I am not sure it is legal - and I still do not believe players will do anything but play on. I still think the situation is totally dissimilar from seeing an opponent's hand that has been presented to you.

I really did understand what I was answering, and still think it a strange bid. I merely tried a shortcut - and then have to defend and show that I mean what I said. Perhaps I shall write it all out next time, which will be a pity.

gnasher, on Sep 18 2009, 09:24 AM, said:

Anyway, this talk of ethics is getting away from my original point, which was this:  I play bridge because I like to win at bridge.  Somebody who intentionally takes advantage of an opponent's mechanical error, or intentionally looks at a dropped card, plays bridge because they like to win.  I don't think I would have much in common with such a person.

Such a player likes to win at bridge. You have different personal ethics from him, and maybe you do not want to be like him, but he is still playing bridge and trying to win at bridge.

Trinidad, on Sep 18 2009, 10:16 AM, said:

Fortunately, my experience is that these personal ethics are almost universally followed. I feel sorry for you if you are submersed in a culture where these personal ethics are "nowhere near universally followed". (Maybe it is the TD bias: a TD usually sees the troubles when he is called. It is a very rare occurance that a player calls the TD to express how pleasant the oppponents were.)

I play an amazing amount of bridge nowadays, far, far more than almost any other TD in England, and my experiences of players and their ethical views and so on is based on playing not as a TD where these type of problems are very rare. Furthermore I do not direct nearly as much as I would like. I am always looking for new opportunities, especially outside England/Wales.
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#62 User is offline   gnasher 

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Posted 2009-September-18, 07:26

bluejak said:

I really did understand what I was answering, and still think it a strange bid.  I merely tried a shortcut - and then have to defend and show that I mean what I said.  Perhaps I shall write it all out next time, which will be a pity.


Sorry. It hadn't occurred to me that anyone would write "strange bid" when they meant "mechanical error". And whilst it's undeniably more concise, in that it is six letters shorter, I'm unconvinced that the benefit justifies the potential for misunderstanding.
... that would still not be conclusive proof, before someone wants to explain that to me as well as if I was a 5 year-old. - gwnn
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#63 User is offline   bluejak 

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  Posted 2009-September-18, 09:25

I did not mean mechanical error. When opponents are raising spades, 5NT is a strange bid, and I would expect players to bid over it automatically without considering. Now, you say it is obviously a mechanical error, fair enough, it said so in the OP, but it does not matter. When an opponent makes a strange bid of this or any other sort, 99.9% of opponents bid over it, they do not ask whether it is a mechanical error. When an opponent shows you his hand, some people look, but many do not, so it is considerably fewer than 99.9% and it is a completely different situation.
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#64 User is offline   barmar 

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Posted 2009-September-18, 15:05

dan_ehh, on Sep 18 2009, 06:04 AM, said:

What do you think about the rare case when you get to make a grand slam missing the trump ace because someone revokes? Revoking is often a mechanical error in the sense that the revoker does not realize he did not follow suit until it is too late.

My feeling is that there are some errors that are considered "part of the game". Something that most of these have in common is that there are laws that specifically cover them. If there's a law, you don't have to apply your personal morals to it, you just have to do what the law says. This suggests that it's acceptable to take advantage of such errors as revokes, penalty cards, leads out of turn, and insufficient bids -- the fact that the lawmakers went into such detail to address them indicates that players shouldn't try to deal with them personally.

Quote

It is my belief that Ethics and Bridge are two terms completely unrelated to each other. Ethics apply in real life, and Bridge is a game. Human beings require a set of moral rules to live by, because no one has a rule book for life (the penal code is a beginning but is insufficient).
In a game, however, we have a set of clear rules which constitute the game, and as long as we are acting within the boundaries of these rules, we are not doing anything wrong.

Suppose professional tennis didn't have a rule saying that you could be punished for cursing a line judge. Would we then say that Serena Williams' behavior in the US Open was OK, because it was in the context of a game, not real life?

I believe that games are played within real life, and morals still apply. There may be situations where the game rules specifically contradict normal morals (otherwise, you couldn't have sports like boxing). But where the game rules are silent or ambiguous, morality can help you decide how to behave.

#65 User is offline   dan_ehh 

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Posted 2009-September-19, 03:39

barmar, on Sep 19 2009, 12:05 AM, said:

dan_ehh, on Sep 18 2009, 06:04 AM, said:

What do you think about the rare case when you get to make a grand slam missing the trump ace because someone revokes? Revoking is often a mechanical error in the sense that the revoker does not realize he did not follow suit until it is too late.
My feeling is that there are some errors that are considered "part of the game".

Why are errors of one kind considered "part of the game" while errors of another kind are not? And more importantly - who gets to decide which error belongs to which kind? Why aren't all errors "part of the game"?

barmar, on Sep 19 2009, 12:05 AM, said:

Suppose professional tennis didn't have a rule saying that you could be punished for cursing a line judge.  Would we then say that Serena Williams' behavior in the US Open was OK, because it was in the context of a game, not real life?

Sorry, but this is a very bad analogy. The manner in which a player speaks to another player/the umpire/the director is not part of the game, it is just part of regular human interaction. And yes, I am aware of the part in the Bridge Laws referring to conduct and etiquette, and while I don't mind it, I find it unnecessary.
I do agree that morals still apply while playing the game, but when you are playing a game, the moral you should be following is "I have agreed/promised/contracted to play by the rules of this game and so I should do that".

barmar, on Sep 19 2009, 12:05 AM, said:

where the game rules are silent or ambiguous, morality can help you decide how to behave.

I strongly disagree. If the rules are silent it means you don't have to do it. If they are ambiguous, well, that's a problem in them, but I still don't think morality should come into the picture, seeing as the concept of morality is a very fluid one.

Lastly, I will mention L72A which specifically addresses "lawful procedures and ethical standards set out in these laws" (emphasis added). I don't know what exactly was meant by the author(s) of this specific article, but it sounds to me as though they meant to emphasize the fact that these are the complete laws and nothing outside is required.
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#66 User is offline   campboy 

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Posted 2009-September-19, 06:39

dan_ehh, on Sep 19 2009, 10:39 AM, said:

Why are errors of one kind considered "part of the game" while errors of another kind are not? And more importantly - who gets to decide which error belongs to which kind? Why aren't all errors "part of the game"?

Is getting lost on the way to the venue and missing the first session "part of the game"? It is certainly an error. But bridge is not a test of navigation, any more than it is a test of being able to hold your cards without dropping them.

"The game" is about making calls and plays. Errors in making calls and plays, whether they are infractions of law or just poor bridge, are part of the game.
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#67 User is offline   campboy 

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Posted 2009-September-19, 06:47

It has occurred to me that there is a very simple way to see if an error is "part of the game". Is the player allowed to get help from outside the game to avoid making it? A disabled player can have someone else hold and play his cards, but you can't ask a kibitzer to stop you bidding out of turn.
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#68 User is offline   jeremy69 

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Posted 2009-September-19, 07:46

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Is getting lost on the way to the venue and missing the first session "part of the game"?


It's likely to be part of the score with late play penalties coming into play. Part of the game involves being at the table ready to participate at the appointed time.
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#69 User is offline   dan_ehh 

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Posted 2009-September-19, 10:20

campboy, on Sep 19 2009, 03:39 PM, said:

dan_ehh, on Sep 19 2009, 10:39 AM, said:

Why are errors of one kind considered "part of the game" while errors of another kind are not? And more importantly - who gets to decide which error belongs to which kind? Why aren't all errors "part of the game"?

Is getting lost on the way to the venue and missing the first session "part of the game"? It is certainly an error. But bridge is not a test of navigation, any more than it is a test of being able to hold your cards without dropping them.

"The game" is about making calls and plays. Errors in making calls and plays, whether they are infractions of law or just poor bridge, are part of the game.

The discussed issue is whether people are contemptible for trying to profit from an error made by the opponents. No one profits from you being late for the game, the only effect it has on the score is that you get penalized.

campboy, on Sep 19 2009, 03:47 PM, said:

It has occurred to me that there is a very simple way to see if an error is "part of the game". Is the player allowed to get help from outside the game to avoid making it? A disabled player can have someone else hold and play his cards, but you can't ask a kibitzer to stop you bidding out of turn.

I don't have any problem with an outsider assisting a disabled person to hold the cards, but what if the person assisting drops the cards? The point is that mechanical errors will always occur, and trying to artificially separate them from the game using "ethics" is wrong.

I have just remembered an unfortunate example from my own past: I was declaring a contract and after cashing my top tricks, I was in the middle of a cross ruff. I was young(er) and foolish(er) (is that a word?) and so I was playing very fast, and accidentally pulled the wrong card from my hand, intending to ruff it in dummy. A moment later I realized this was actually a trump so it could not be ruffed in dummy. I asked the opponents if I could take it back and they said no. I called the director, and showed him my hand, making it very clear that this was a mechanical error and that I was in the middle of a cross ruff, but he still didn't let me take it back, because the rules say the card is played. Unlucky, but that is the game. Should my opponents be ashamed of themselves? I don't think so.
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#70 User is offline   campboy 

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Posted 2009-September-19, 11:19

dan_ehh, on Sep 19 2009, 05:20 PM, said:

The discussed issue is whether people are contemptible for trying to profit from an error made by the opponents. No one profits from you being late for the game, the only effect it has on the score is that you get penalized.

Well, as I hope my previous posts made clear, I do not think anyone is "contemptible" for trying to legally profit from an opponent's error, whether or not I would do the same myself.

However, in my last couple of posts I wasn't commenting on the main issue. You asked the difference between errors which are "part of the game" and those which aren't. I think the distinction between the two is clear.

Incidentally, your opponents get average+ on any boards you miss, so yes, they do profit.
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#71 User is offline   bluejak 

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  Posted 2009-September-19, 17:42

Quote

No one profits from you being late for the game, the only effect it has on the score is that you get penalized.

Try telling that to Robson, who got a PP of 6 imps [actually, two PPs of 3 imps each] after winning a k/o match by 5 imps.

Of course penalties lead to other contestants benefiting. They would be pretty pointless otherwise.
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#72 User is offline   bluejak 

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  Posted 2009-September-30, 08:27

Having considered the matter, this is the reply sent to my correspondent. I do not think it actually follows what was decided here!

Dear Xxxxxx

I am sorry that it has taken some time to reply but opinions on your
problem differ. However, having listened to advice, I have decided this
is the effects of the Laws.

When a player makes a mechanical error he is permitted to change it
under Law 25A so long as there is no pause for thought and his partner
has not subsequently called.

It is accepted that the pause for thought is from the realisation of
the error, which means in practice this part of the law is hardly ever
relevant and not in this case where he attempted to change it once he
realised.

It is also accepted that it does not matter if the player's
realisation is because of partner's actions that would normally be
unauthorised, so if he realises he has made the wrong call because of
partner's alert he is allowed to change it.

That means that he is allowed to change it because of his partner's
antics on this hand: a change is legal under Law 25A.

However, Law 73A1 reads:

LAW 73: COMMUNICATION
A. Appropriate Communication between Partners
1. Communication between partners during the auction and play shall be
effected only by means of calls and plays.

Also, Law 73B1 reads:

LAW 73: COMMUNICATION
B. Inappropriate Communication between Partners
1. Partners shall not communicate by means such as the manner in which
calls or plays are made, extraneous remarks or gestures, questions asked
or not asked of the opponents or alerts and explanations given or not
given to them.

I consider that while the South player has done nothing wrong, and is
allowed to change his call, the North player has communicated with him
illegally. So I would rule he is in breach of those two Laws I have
quoted and I would adjust the score back under Law 12A1 at the end to
5NT doubled making however many seems appropriate, which I believe to be
the score likely obtained without the illegal communication.
David Stevenson

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