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One from the BIL I'm not so sure about

#1 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-February-03, 22:33

--AKx KQJx KJ9xxx

1 on left (precision), pass, 1N on right. Say you double.

Pass, pard bids 2, 2 on right.

Now what?
"Phil" on BBO
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#2 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2008-February-03, 22:41

I would not be surprised if partner had 6 spades. At MP, I'd X again. At IMPs, I'm less comfortable about endplaying partner into playing 2Sx (he could have as few as 4 spades), and I might just bid 4D, though X'ing again is okay by me. 3C is awful.

Edit: 3D was stupid, changed to 4D.
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#3 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-February-03, 22:52

so what do we need for 5C... the club queen? At first I thought I'd bid 4D but maybe I should bid the game and see if partner can make it.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#4 User is offline   bhall 

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Posted 2008-February-03, 23:14

I would cue 3, planning to remove 3N to 4. If partner passes that, he must hold a real dog. If, instead of 3N, partner bids 4, I will try 5. (I hope partner has his crystal ball with him.)
just plain Bill
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#5 User is offline   inquiry 

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Posted 2008-February-03, 23:26

Scoring: IMP


S = W = N = you
1S - P - 1N - X
P - 2D - 2S - ?

Hope this helps


If you cue bid 3 and it goes pass-3NT-pass back to you, what do you bid? If you bid 4 (after the cue-bid) is that forcing? I see one vote that partner can pass.

I will not vote, as i know the hand.
--Ben--

#6 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2008-February-03, 23:32

To me 3S followed by 4D is forcing.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#7 User is offline   the hog 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 01:03

"To me 3S followed by 4D is forcing."

For me also.

However I notice that no one is bidding 3D, and in fact one poster calls it "stupid". I am bidding 3D, and far from being stupid, this is a big bid and not just a raise as I suspect one or two posters think. If pd has nothing, 3D will be high enough.
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#8 User is offline   rogerclee 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 01:09

The_Hog, on Feb 4 2008, 02:03 AM, said:

"To me 3S followed by 4D is forcing."

For me also.

However I notice that no one is bidding 3D, and in fact one poster calls it "stupid". I am bidding 3D, and far from being stupid, this is a big bid and not just a raise as I suspect one or two posters think. If pd has nothing, 3D will be high enough.

Well, I initially didn't think it was stupid :). I think it's being unduly pessimistic. However, partner could even have a hand like Txxxxx xx xxx xx.
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#9 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 01:14

inquiry, on Feb 4 2008, 06:26 PM, said:

If you cue bid 3 and it goes pass-3NT-pass back to you, what do you bid? If you bid 4 (after the cue-bid) is that forcing? I see one vote that partner can pass.

Pulling 3NT to 4minor by an unlimited hand should always be forcing.
Wayne Burrows

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#10 User is offline   Free 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 01:39

Dbl
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#11 User is offline   Gerben42 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 02:18

Partner needs to have 6 for us not to have a fit. If I bid 3 then 4 I have learned nothing so why not 5 right away? But what I want is to find out if partner has something.

I bid 4.
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#12 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-February-04, 06:21

You have 2 issues on this hand:

1) Do we belong in clubs or diamonds? Clubs could be better to avoid a situation where partner has 4 small diamonds and they lead spades at us, or to avoid a situation where they get a club ruff because we have more clubs than diamonds. Partner could also be 5332 where we have only 7 diamonds and we have 8 clubs.

2) Do we belong in game or slam? (lol ok I read the other posts, for most people it seems to be partscore or game... partscore is not an option to me though). I mean partscore could be the right spot but I couldn't dream of ever playing one. We need very little for game, and not so much for slam.

My first instinct was to just bid 4S which is very good for issue #2 but does not address issue #1 (which is the more important one) at all. The only way I can think to deal with issue #1 is to bid 3S and then pull 3N to 4C. If partner raises 4C to 5C, pass. If partner bids 4D, commit to diamonds and make a slam try. If partner bids 4N over 4C then we'll have to guess 5 of a minor (he could bid this way with 5341 or 5332 imo). By bidding this way we can get to clubs but we can also miss a slam. Given that some of my counterparts might be in partscore(!) that is not my primary concern though.

very interesting problem phil
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#13 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 06:35

BTW, I notice in Ben's diagram that it was IMPs. Actually it was a teaching table. Had we been told to bid/play as if it were IMPs?
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#14 User is offline   mcphee 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 08:17

I am rather sure I would have elected to simply overcall 2C but if forced to dble I would ask my self this question, what does 2D show? Now on this hand it sounds to me as though partner does happen to have some length in D, but he was forced to bid basically. I know he has less than 9 hcp for sure and quite likely less than 8 as they failed to jump a level. If I cue bid the opps suit now rather than make a simple raise (about 15-18) this show a hand evalued in the j/s range does it not and delivers 4 card support. That looks like what I have. I am not fond of a second dble of 2S as I am of the school that feels this hand does not have the defensive strength that might see partner converting to penalties. The 4th D reduces defensive hopes. I do not like making a bid that can place partner under pressure and the S void increases the chance that they might pass. I hate major accidents at imps.
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#15 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 08:19

helene_t, on Feb 4 2008, 02:35 PM, said:

BTW, I notice in Ben's diagram that it was IMPs. Actually it was a teaching table. Had we been told to bid/play as if it were IMPs?

I think 90+% of posts ask for our bidding as in imp's. Bidding at MP is different, but it's also further from "normal bridge" than imp's.
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#16 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 10:38

At the table I cue'd 3 and removed pard's 3N to 4. Pard passed (?!) which turned out to be a good move since 4 wasn't a big success. Pard held 9xxxx xxx 98x Ax.

Unlucky layout? Maybe.

After the hand I was wondering if steering the hand toward diamonds was a good idea. Surely we are getting a spade lead and our trumps are under immediate attack. I thought it was a little unlucky to catch pard with a 5=3=3=2 here. We still have some handling problems if pard has 4 diamonds after a spade lead, if he's lacking the A-10, but frequently these issues can be overcome if our clubs can be set up.

I'd probably bid it the same way again.
"Phil" on BBO
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#17 User is offline   pclayton 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 10:41

rogerclee, on Feb 3 2008, 11:09 PM, said:

The_Hog, on Feb 4 2008, 02:03 AM, said:

"To me 3S followed by 4D is forcing."

For me also.

However I notice that no one is bidding 3D, and in fact one poster calls it "stupid". I am bidding 3D, and far from being stupid, this is a big bid and not just a raise as I suspect one or two posters think. If pd has nothing, 3D will be high enough.

Well, I initially didn't think it was stupid B). I think it's being unduly pessimistic. However, partner could even have a hand like Txxxxx xx xxx xx.

Why are so many placing pard with 6 spades here? Is it really that likely that RHO is taking a free 2 with a doubleton?

I did mention the opponents played precision. I don't know if they played constructive raises or not (very common over a limited 1M), but even then, 1N frequently hides a fit.
"Phil" on BBO
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#18 Guest_Jlall_*

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Posted 2008-February-04, 10:42

Your example hand for pard is a good example of why 4C is better than 4D over 3N imo.
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#19 User is offline   Cascade 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 13:06

If we are worried about partner not having four diamonds then it seems we need to be bidding our clubs at some point in the auction.

Of course there are problems with introducing clubs as partner will not necessarily know he needs to rebid his diamonds to confirm four!!!

The choices seem to be:

1. (1) Pass (1NT) 2...

2 (1 Pass (1NT) X
(Pass) 2 (2) 3...

3. (1 Pass (1NT) X
(Pass) 2 (2) 3
(Pass) 3NT (Pass) 4...

I think I like the first or second options best.

(Although I don't know on the second auction how later I am going to convince parter that I have four diamonds if that is relevent).
Wayne Burrows

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#20 User is offline   mikestar 

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Posted 2008-February-04, 14:09

I wouldn't double--too many problems unless partner has 5 hearts, may be control issues even then. So I'm realistically not looking for a heart fit or a marginal diamond fit. That being the case, the sensible bid would seem to be 2, looking to catch up later with a reverse in or a cue bid, depending on the auction.

Doubling first as if I had a strong one suiter isn't crazy, but it will often lose the diamonds when diamonds are right or get us to diamonds when diamonds are wrong. Starting with 2 should get us to diamonds if partner has at least four fair diamonds with club shortness and seldom otherwise.
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