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Not forcing or forcing

Poll: Forcing or not (33 member(s) have cast votes)

Forcing or not

  1. 1) Not forcing and not forcing (0 votes [0.00%])

    Percentage of vote: 0.00%

  2. 2) Not forcing and forcing (3 votes [9.09%])

    Percentage of vote: 9.09%

  3. 3) Forcing and forcing (30 votes [90.91%])

    Percentage of vote: 90.91%

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#1 User is offline   ardf10987 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 02:14

I had some problem about a simple sequence. I hadn't doubts before, anyway just to verify what the world think, can you choose in this two sequences (ops always silent)...

1 1 2 Not forcing (can be passed) or forcing

1 1 2 Not forcing (can be passed) or forcing

Thanks
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#2 User is online   P_Marlowe 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 02:20

Hi,

forcing, the first one game forcing,
the second forcing for one round or
if you play in NA promising a 3rd bid,
in both cases 5-4.

With kind regards
Marlowe
With kind regards
Uwe Gebhardt (P_Marlowe)
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#3 User is offline   helene_t 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 02:55

Yes, both are forcing. It's not a matter of agreement.

The first one is a jump shift by opener. This is game forcing and shows at least a 5-card in the opening suit (not sure what to do with a 4414 though), along with the 4-card hearts. Thus a simple 1 rebid could be as strong as 17(18) points, while a 2NT rebid would not deny a 4-card hearts.

The second one is a reverse. The word "reverse" is misleading (historical reason: in older styles, a / hand with less than 17(16) points would always open 1 even if clubs were longer). You can recognize a reverse as the non-jump introduction of a second suit (here ) by a player who already showed another suit () and which forces partner to take preference for the first suit at the 3-level:

1-1
2-2* not a reverse: opener can take preference with 2

1-1
2-2* reverse: opener must take preference with 3

1-2
3* reverse: responder must take preference with 3

A reverse is always forcing and always shows a 5-card or longer in the first suit (again, not sure what to do with a 1444). In your example, the reverse forces for only one round, but most stronger players have the agreement that opener must make a third bid unless responder jumps to game. Hence
1-1
2-2*
is forcing, as would 2NT, 3 and 3 be.
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#4 User is offline   gwnn 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 04:37

I voted for 2) because I read the post wrong. Obviously both are forcing, and 99% of the world plays the first sequence as GF.
... and I can prove it with my usual, flawless logic.
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#5 User is offline   foo 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 10:44

The first is a Jump Shift.
The 2nd is a Reverse.

They are both strong bids and are 100% forcing. Most of the world plays the first as GF.
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#6 User is offline   ochinko 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 12:38

The strength of the opener in both cases is unlimited, which makes them forcing. The clubs are longer than the hearts, and the two suits are at least 5:4.

You could, of course, invent a system in which they would be non-forcing, but I don't see what you'd gain by such treatment.
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#7 User is offline   han 

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Posted 2007-July-08, 12:40

They are both forcing, I would never pass the first one.
Please note: I am interested in boring, bog standard, 2/1.

- hrothgar
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#8 User is offline   ardf10987 

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Posted 2007-July-10, 01:56

Tx all.

I hadn't doubts, but it's much more better to see a lot of people thinking on the same line (all of you till now, because the 1 vote was an error).

I think we can forget this matter. :)
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