is it a trap?
#1
Posted 2007-June-20, 15:55
1♠ p p X
2♠ p p X
p 3♦ p ??
(No agreement about strength of 3♦ or what 2NT by partner would have been or anything like that, none of it is anything special.)
#2
Posted 2007-June-20, 16:03
jdonn, on Jun 20 2007, 04:55 PM, said:
1♠ p p X
2♠ p p X
p 3♦ p ??
(No agreement about strength of 3♦ or what 2NT by partner would have been or anything like that, none of it is anything special.)
3S
#3
Posted 2007-June-20, 16:40
Partner has shown me almost nothing. He certainly has not promised the diamond Ace.
I did not bid 2NT after 2♠, so I'm not simply balanced.
I must like his diamond call.
If partner has the spade Qx, even, he should get the picture and try 3NT.
If partner has nothing of use in spades, but the diamond Ace is in his hand, he knows that I asked him to bid 3NT when I was not looking at that diamond Ace. So, it seems that the diamond Ace is as good as the spade control.
Or so it seems to me, maybe.
-P.J. Painter.
#4
Posted 2007-June-20, 17:10
#5
Posted 2007-June-20, 17:17
a.k.a. Appeal Without Merit
#6 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-June-20, 17:33
#7
Posted 2007-June-20, 18:03
While I disagree with Justin about thinking about bidding (I certainly thought about it, and when I first looked at it, was going to bid 3♠ almost reflexively) I do agree that passing is the smarter move. And while at golf I can never make myself take the thinking player's shot, I can sometimes manage it at bridge...so I pass.
BTW, I have almost always had very good results by passing in this and analagous situations...partners rarely have the 'magic' hands that would warrant bidding on.... but isn't the pass here inconsistent with aggression in the recent thread featuring KQJx void AKxxx AKxx? Especially since we are on this post chasing a vul. game (the contract we most stretch to reach) while on the other it is a slam, which is never better than 50-50 in terms of desirability... and on that hand far, far worse because of the significant risk both that the 5-level was unsafe and that slam could be going for a doubled number?
#8 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-June-20, 18:17
mikeh, on Jun 20 2007, 07:03 PM, said:
While I disagree with Justin about thinking about bidding (I certainly thought about it, and when I first looked at it, was going to bid 3♠ almost reflexively) I do agree that passing is the smarter move. And while at golf I can never make myself take the thinking player's shot, I can sometimes manage it at bridge...so I pass.
BTW, I have almost always had very good results by passing in this and analagous situations...partners rarely have the 'magic' hands that would warrant bidding on.... but isn't the pass here inconsistent with aggression in the recent thread featuring KQJx void AKxxx AKxx? Especially since we are on this post chasing a vul. game (the contract we most stretch to reach) while on the other it is a slam, which is never better than 50-50 in terms of desirability... and on that hand far, far worse because of the significant risk both that the 5-level was unsafe and that slam could be going for a doubled number?
If partner has the A fifth of diamonds I'm pretty sure you'd want to be in 3N (except when he has good hearts as well) as LHO just gets owned on the run of the diamonds. Still if he pitches correctly and smoothly he will be down to a stiff king and we'll have to guess it, but opps rarely if ever do that.
Anyways, playing partner for A fifth of diamonds is really big, and you still wouldnt get to 3N unless you just up and bid it. I would honestly be completely shocked if bidding either 3S or 3N was a long term winnr.
#9
Posted 2007-June-20, 18:35
mikeh, on Jun 20 2007, 06:10 PM, said:
Oops! Oh yeah. LOL
-P.J. Painter.
#10
Posted 2007-June-20, 18:48
If you will not convert 3♦ to 3NT or 3♠, then you doubled planning to pass 3♦. The same would be the case for 3♣. I'm not sure what the plan is after 3♥, but...
Is the second double the best alternative?
What would...
1♠-P-P-X-
2♠-P-P-2NT
...show?
1♠-P-P-2NT would typically show about 19-21, I'm assuming.
With a simple 16-19 balanced, are you bidding 2NT now, after 2♠ and a pass from partner? Or, would you pass unless takeout-like, in which case you'd double?
So, what is 2NT after a passed advancer? It seems like a really big bid, but I have never seen it, discussed it, read about it, whatever. I have no idea.
But, it seems like a really big bid.
If it is a realy big bid, balanced and all, then that seems to work rather well. If partner has Axxxx in diamonds, he can raise to 3NT. If he has a second spade stop and a smattering, he can raise. If he has four or five hearts, whatever you have agreed to play in an auction I have never seen, discussed, read about, or whatever, the system you have in this sequence to distinguish heart length, works great!
-P.J. Painter.
#11 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-June-20, 18:55
#12
Posted 2007-June-20, 18:58
Jlall, on Jun 20 2007, 07:55 PM, said:
Fair point.
But, out of curiosity, what the Heck does 1♠-P-P-X-2♠-P-P-2NT show?
-P.J. Painter.
#13 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-June-20, 19:30
kenrexford, on Jun 20 2007, 07:58 PM, said:
Jlall, on Jun 20 2007, 07:55 PM, said:
Fair point.
But, out of curiosity, what the Heck does 1♠-P-P-X-2♠-P-P-2NT show?
No idea, a big problem stems from the common 11-15 balancing range. If I had a balanced 18 count I would not feel comfortable passing out 2S, partner could easily pass with like 8 points since I may have an unbalanced 9 count. The balancing range is so huge over 1S. Another big problem is that balancing auctions and ranges are not discussed much in bridge literature. I am beginning to see the wisdom in an 11-17 range over 1S, but that carries with it it's own problems of course. I guess it's just an inherently bad auction since you need to get in there on such a wide range of hands.
#14
Posted 2007-June-20, 19:55
kenrexford, on Jun 20 2007, 06:58 PM, said:
It shows whatever you agreed X-then-2N to show
#15
Posted 2007-June-20, 23:10
kenrexford, on Jun 20 2007, 07:58 PM, said:
Jlall, on Jun 20 2007, 07:55 PM, said:
Fair point.
But, out of curiosity, what the Heck does 1♠-P-P-X-2♠-P-P-2N show?
The SA definitions:
1♠-pa-pa-1N= 11-16
1♠-pa-pa-2N= 19-20
1♠-pa-pa-X intending to rebid 2N= 17-18
(but this last may assume Advancer bids)
In the exact sequence given, I'd say X, then 2N says "I can count 8 tricks. Raise to 3N if you have a good card."
With the OP hand: Ax AQ87 KQJ9 AQJ
This 23 (!) count is outside all those boxes.
I don't know how much of a moose you have to have to X then keep going over Their continuing action and pd's refusal to chime in, but whatever it is, you have it.
OTOH, it's not clear to me that any NT rebid is appropriate on =this= board.
X again. Maybe even a 3rd time if you have to.
We are not getting rich defending 2S Red @ IMPs.
#16
Posted 2007-June-20, 23:36
#17
Posted 2007-June-21, 00:43
jdonn, on Jun 21 2007, 12:36 AM, said:
I like the sequence thus far. What I don't like are my current choices opposite a pd who could have no more than 40-12-23= 4 HCP.
Any game except 5♦ in a super fit with shortness in the rounded's rates to fail. But 3♦ is not paying as well as 2♠X going down or Game.
#18 Guest_Jlall_*
Posted 2007-June-21, 00:47
foo, on Jun 21 2007, 01:43 AM, said:
you sure about that?
#19
Posted 2007-June-21, 00:51
#20
Posted 2007-June-21, 02:27

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